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A network administrator noticed that all traffic that is redirected to the Cisco WSA from the Cisco ASA firewall cannot get to the Internet in a Transparent proxy environment using WCCP. Which troubleshooting action must be taken on the CLI to make sure that WCCP communication is not failing?
A. Disable WCCP to see if the WCCP service is causing the issue
B. Explicitly point the browser to the proxy
C. Ping the WCCP device
D. Check WCCP logs in debug mode
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
What is the function of a PAC file on a Cisco WSA?
A. The file allows redirection of web traffic to a specific proxy server
B. The file is mandatory for a transparent proxy to redirect user traffic
C. The file provides instructions about which URL categories are permitted
D. The file is mandatory for an explicit proxy to forward user traffic
Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?
A. protocol
B. version
C. header
D. payload
Correct Answer: C
Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.
A user browses to a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?
Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)
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What default Splunk role can use the Log Event alert action?
A. Power
B. User
C. can_delete
D. Admin
Correct Answer: D
Explain:
In Splunk, the Admin role (Option D) can use the Log Event alert action among many other administrative privileges. The Log Event alert action allows Splunk to create an event in an index based on the triggering of an alert, providing a way to log and track alert occurrences over time. The Admin role typically encompasses a wide range of permissions, including the ability to configure and manage alert actions.
Question 2:
A “Linux logins” report populates a summary index with the search string sourcetype=linux_secure| stop src_ip user. Which of the following correctly searches against the summary index for this data?
A. index=summary sourcetype=”linux_secure” | top src_ip user
B. index=summary search_name=”Linux logins” | top src_ip user
C. index=summary search_name=”Linux logins” | stats count by src_ip user
D. index=summary sourcetype=”linux_secure” | stats count by src_ip user
Correct Answer: B
Explain:
When searching against summary data in Splunk, it \ is common to reference the name of the saved search or report that populated the summary index. The correct search syntax to retrieve data from the summary index populated by a report named “Linux logins” is index=summary search_name=” Linux logins” | top src_ip user (Option B). This syntax uses the search_name field, which holds the name of the saved search or report that generated the summary data, allowing for precise retrieval of the intended summary data.
Question 3:
How can the inspect button be disabled on a dashboard panel?
A. Set inspect.link.disabled to 1
B. Set link. inspect .visible to 0
C. Set link.inspectSearch.visible too
D. Set link.search.disabled to 1
Correct Answer: B
Explain:
To disable the inspect button on a dashboard panel in Splunk, you can set the link. inspect. visible attribute to 0 (Option B) in the panel\’s source code. This attribute controls the visibility of the inspect button, and setting it to 0 hides the button, preventing users from accessing the search inspector for that panel.
Question 4:
What order of incoming events must be supplied to the transaction command to ensure correct results?
A. Reverse lexicographical order
B. Ascending lexicographical order
C. Ascending chronological order
D. Reverse chronological order
Correct Answer: C
Explain:
The transaction command in Splunk groups events into transactions based on common fields or characteristics. For the transaction command to function correctly and group events into meaningful transactions, the incoming events must be supplied in ascending chronological order (Option C). This ensures that related events are sequenced correctly according to their occurrence over time, allowing for accurate transaction grouping and analysis
Question 5:
Which of the following is accurate about cascading inputs?
A. They can be reset by an event handler.
B. The final input has no impact on previous inputs.
C. Only the final input of the sequence can supply a token to searches.
D. Inputs added to panels can not participate.
Correct Answer: A
Explain:
Cascading inputs in Splunk dashboards allow the selection of one input (like a dropdown, radio button, etc.) to determine the available options in the subsequent input, creating a dependent relationship between them. An event handler can be configured to reset subsequent inputs based on the selection made in a preceding input (Option A), ensuring that only relevant options are presented to the user as they make selections. This approach enhances the dashboard\’s usability by guiding the user through a logical flow of choices, where each selection refines the scope of the following options.
Question 6:
What file types does Splunk use to define geospatial lookups?
A. GPX or GML files
B. TXT files
C. KMZ or KML files
D. CSV files
Correct Answer: C
Explain:
For defining geospatial lookups, Splunk uses KMZ or KML files (Option C). KML (Keyhole Markup Language) is an XML notation for expressing geographic annotation and visualization within Internet-based maps and Earth browsers like Google Earth. KMZ is a compressed version of KML files. These file types allow Splunk to map data points to geographic locations, enabling the creation of geospatial visualizations and analyses. GPX or GML files (Option A), TXT files (Option B), and CSV files (Option D) are not specifically used for geospatial lookups in Splunk, although CSV files are commonly used for other types of lookups.
Question 7:
Why is the transaction command slow in large Splunk deployments?
A. It forces the search to run in fast mode.
B. transaction or runs on each Indexer in parallel.
C. It forces all event data to be returned to the search head.
D. transaction runs a hidden eval to format fields.
Correct Answer: C
Explain:
The transaction command can be slow in large Splunk deployments because it requires all event data relevant to the transaction to be returned to the search head (Option C). This process can be resource-intensive, especially for transactions that span a large volume of data or time, as it involves aggregating and sorting events across potentially many indexers before the transaction logic can be applied.
Question 8:
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the append command?
A. It is used with a sub search and only accesses real-lime searches.
B. It is used with a sub search and oily accesses historical data.
C. It cannot be used with a sub search and only accesses historical data.
D. It cannot be used with a sub search and only accesses real-time searches.
Correct Answer: B
Explain:
The append command in Splunk is often used with a sub search to add additional data to the end of the primary search results, and it can access historical data (Option B). This capability is useful for combining datasets from different time ranges or sources, enriching the primary search results with supplementary information.
Question 9:
Which statement about six files is accurate?
A. Splunk updates tsidx files every 30 minutes.
B. Splunk removes outdated six files every 5 minutes.
C. A tsidx file consists of a lexicon and a posting list.
D. Each bucket in each index may contain only one side file.
Correct Answer: C
Explain:
A tsidx file in Splunk is an index file that contains indexed data, and it consists of two main parts: a lexicon and a posting list (Option C). The lexicon is a list of unique terms found in the data, and the posting list is a list of references to the occurrences of these terms in the indexed data. This structure allows Splunk to efficiently search and retrieve data based on search terms.
Question 10:
What XML element is used to pass multiple fields into another dashboard using a dynamic drill down?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: D
Explain:
In Splunk Simple XML for dashboards, dynamic drill downs are configured within the element, not, or. To pass multiple fields to another dashboard, you would use a combination of tokens
within the element. Each token specifies a field or value to be passed. The correct configuration might look something like this within the element:
$row.field1$
$row.field2$
/app/search/new_dashboard
In this configuration,$row.field1$and$row.field2$are placeholders for the field values from the clicked event, which are assigned to tokenstoken1andtoken2. These tokens can then be used in the target dashboard to receive the values.
The element specifiesthe target dashboard. Note that the exact syntax can vary based on the specific requirements of the drill down and the dashboard configuration.
Question 11:
what is the result of the series command?
A. To transform the single series output into a multi-series output
B. To transform a stats-like output into a chart-like output.
C. To transform a multi-series output into single-series output.
D. To transform a chart-like output into a stats-like output.
Correct Answer: B
Explain:
The result of the XY series command in Splunk is to transform a stats-like output into chart- like output (Option B). The series command restructures the search results so that each row represents a unique combination of x and y values, suitable for plotting in a chart, making it easier to visualize complex relationships between multiple data points.
Question 12:
What qualifies a report for acceleration?
A. Fewer than 100k events in search results, with transforming commands used in the search string.
B. More than 100k events in search results, with only a search command in the search string.
C. More than 100k events in the search results, with a search and transforming command used in the search string.
D. fewer than 100k events in search results, with only a search and transaction command used in the search string.
Correct Answer: A
Explain:
A report qualifies for acceleration in Splunk if it involves fewer than 100,000 events in the search results and uses transforming commands in the search string (Option A). Transforming commands aggregate data, making it more suitable for acceleration by reducing the dataset\’s complexity and size, which in turn improves the speed and efficiency of report generation.
Question 13:
Assuming a standard time zone across the environment, what syntax will always return events from between 2:00 am and 5:00 am?
A. datehour>-2 AND date_hour<5
B. earliest=-2h@h AND latest=-5h@h
C. time_hour>-2 AND time_hour>-5
D. earliest=2h@ AND latest=5h3h
Correct Answer: B
Explain:
To always return events from between 2:00 AM and 5:00 AM, assuming a standard time zone across the environment, the correct Splunk search syntax is earliest=-2h@h AND latest=-5h@h (Option B). This syntax uses relative time modifiers to specify a range starting 2 hours ago from the current hour (-2h@h) and ending 5 hours ago from the current hour (-5h@h), effectively capturing the desired time window.
Question 14:
What happens to panels with post-processing searches when their base search Is refreshed?
A. The parcels are deleted.
B. The panels are only refreshed If they have also been configured.
C. The panels are refreshed automatically.
D. Nothing happens to the panels.
Correct Answer: C
Explain:
When the base search of a dashboard panel with post-processing searches is refreshed, the panels with these post-processing searches are refreshed automatically (Option C). Post-processing searches inherit the scope and results of the base search, and when the base search is updated or rerun, the post-processed results are recalculated to reflect the latest data.
Question 15:
Where does the output of an append command appear in the search results?
A. Added as a column to the right of the search results.
B. Added as a column to the left of the search results.
C. Added to the beginning of the search results.
D. Added to the end of the search results.
Correct Answer: D
Explain:
The output of an append command in Splunk search results is added to the end of the search results (Option D). The append command is used to concatenate the results of a subsearch to the end of the current search results, effectively extending the result set with additional data. This can be particularly useful for combining related datasets or adding contextual information to the existing search results.
…
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A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
A. Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.
B. Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.
C. Enable the WPA Policy.
D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.
Correct Answer: D
Navigate to WLAN > Edit > Security > Layer2, and select None for Layer 2 Security:
What is the reason for poor performance on the network interface?
A. The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.
B. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.
C. The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.
D. The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured
Correct Answer: B
Here we see a large number of input errors and CRC errors.
Topic Question 3:
What is a function of a southbound API?
A. Use orchestration to provision a virtual server configuration from a web server
B. Automate configuration changes between a server and a switching fabric
C. Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric
D. Facilitate the information exchange between an SDN controller and an application
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 4:
What is represented by the word “R29” within this JSON schema?
A. array
B. key
C. object
D. value
Correct Answer: D
Topic Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?
A. 192.168.30.1
B. 10.10.10.6
C. 10.10.10.5
D. 192.168.20.1
Correct Answer: B
Topic Question 6:
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Topic Question 7:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 8:
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
A. VLANID
B. SSID
C. RFID
D. WLANID
Correct Answer: B
The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. Multiple access points on a network or subnetwork may use the same SSIDs.
Topic Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial 2.
D. The router will drop the packet.
Correct Answer: C
Topic Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same network, the router will not accept it and show an error when the administrator assigns it.
Topic Question 11:
What are two characteristics of a small office/home office connection environment? (Choose two.)
A. It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.
B. It supports between 50 and 100 users.
C. It supports between 1 and 50 users.
D. It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.
E. A router port connects to a broadband connection.
Correct Answer: CE
Topic Question 12:
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: BE
Topic Question 13:
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate
B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8
C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8
D. Accept: application/json
Correct Answer: D
Accept header is a way for a client to specify the media type of the response content it is expecting and Content-type is a way to specify the media type of request being sent from the client to the server.
Topic Question 14:
What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?
A. to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device
B. to set the severity of Syslog messages from each device
C. to identify the source from which each syslog message originated
D. to control the number of Syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally
Correct Answer: B
The purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network is to set the severity of Syslog messages from each device.
Topic Question 15:
DRAG DROP
Match the functions to the corresponding layers.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
…
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A customer has multiple WLCs running N+1 redundancy with APs equally distributed. Only one WLC is a designated backup for all other WLCs so the customer must ensure that the most critical APs remain registered or get priority over other APs in case of a WLC failure. However, the customer notices on WLC failure that some critical APs remain unregistered What needs to be addressed in the design?
A. AP fallback is not enabled on the backup WLC.
B. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the backup WLC.
C. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the failed WLC.
D. AP fallback is not enabled on the failed WLC.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 2:
During a wireless design, all APs are mapped to designated controllers in case of failure. The controllers are located in the same data center but in different racks. An AP failed over to a controller that was not defined on its High Availability tab. The customer does not want the AP to move back to its defined Cisco WLCs until they manually intervene. What needs to be addressed in the design?
A. Set AP fallback to enabled.
B. Set AP fallback to disabled.
C. Change the HA SKU secondary unit option.
D. Change the default mobility domain.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable communication?
A. UDP port 16666
B. IP protocol 97
C. UDP port 97
D. TCP port 97
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
New Question 4:
An engineer is designing a new wireless network. The network needs to fulfill the following requirements:
1.
support multimedia applications
2.
support a high concentration of wireless clients
3.
support data over wireless
4.
support roaming Which approach should be used?
A. use of microcells with reduced power levels
B. use of macro cells with reduced power levels
C. coverage for cells at maximum power levels
D. use of macro cells with maximum power levels
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
An engineer is configuring a centralized set of controllers for separate facilities. Which two Cisco wireless architectures must be used to ensure flexible sizing of WLAN to VLAN mappings? (Choose two.)
A. interface group
B. mobility group
C. AP group
D. controller group
E. RF group
Correct Answer: BC
New Question 6:
A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)
A. Use a battery pack to power APs
B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
A company has 10 access point licenses available on their backup Cisco WLC and their primary Cisco WLC is at full capacity, 5 access points are set to high failover priority and 7 access points are set to critical failover priority. During a failure, not all critical access points failed over to the backup Cisco WLC. Which configuration is the cause of this issue?
A. The high-priority access point is oversubscribed.
B. network ap-priority is set to enable.
C. The critical priority access point count is oversubscribed.
An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To wireless network availability. Two Standalone controllers are installed in the head office. APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but failed. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are installed?
A. IP Protocol 67
B. IP Protocol 77
C. IP Protocol 87
D. IP Protocol 97
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
New Question 10:
An engineer must create data-link redundancy for the company\’s Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The engineer has decided to configure LAG-based redundancy instead of port-based redundancy. Which three features of LAG-based redundancy influenced this decision? (Choose three.)
A. Packets are always sent out on the same port they are received on.
B. All interface traffic passes as long as one port is up.
C. The same port has multiple untagged dynamics interfaces.
D. Interface connection to two separate nonstacked switches is available.
A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?
A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.
B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.
C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.
D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
New Question 12:
An engineer has designed an anchor redundancy for guest clients connecting to SSID with auto-anchor configured. After adding a second Anchor WLC under the SSID mobility anchor list, clients are load-balanced between existing and new anchors instead of having one anchor as active and the other one as standby. Which feature should be included in the design that will be configured on the WLC running 8.1 or above to ensure anchor redundancy?
A. Auto-Anchor Foreign Mapping
B. AP groups
C. Guest Anchor Priority
D. 802.11r
Correct Answer: C
New Question 13:
A customer has noticed that Client Band Select is enabled and no clients are utilizing the 5 GHz band. Which three parameters must be met to ensure that wireless clients use the 5 GHz bands? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that channel bonding is enabled on the WLAN.
B. Ensure that the co-channel interference has not exceeded-85 dBm.
C. Ensure that the UNII-2 extended channels are enabled on the 802.11a radios.
D. Ensure that the client is receiving RSSI above the minimum band select RSSI threshold.
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectra?
A. RRM
B. Cisco centralized key management
C. Band select
D. Load balancing
Correct Answer: C
…
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A developer is nearing the end of a software development cycle and is ready to deploy the software. The customer wants to continue using a secure software development lifecycle methodology and must plan for postproduction components. Which two areas should the developer address? (Choose two.)
A. performing code reviews
B. requirement gathering
C. change management process
D. new code scanning
E. rollback plans
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 2:
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of type _________.
Correct Answer: pod, volume
New Question 3:
Which Kubernetes object is used to create a ClusterIP or NodePort?
A. service
B. pod
C. deployment
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: A
New Question 4:
DRAG DROP
An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack from the left onto the correct functions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 5:
A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
A. ENTRYPOINT
B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]
C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]
D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
What is the purpose of using a build tool in software development?
A. It complies with source code into binaries and executables.
B. It provides a way to edit source code using a graphical interface.
C. It is a manual process that is followed to build software.
D. It tracks bugs and incidents in a built application.
Correct Answer: A
New Question 7:
ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?
A. The default path is not used.
B. The volume is not created.
C. The volume is created.
D. The volume is created with errors.
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Which type of testing should be integrated into a CI/CD pipeline to ensure the correct behavior of all of the modules in the source code that were developed using TDD?
A. soak testing
B. unit testing
C. load testing
D. volume testing
Correct Answer: B
New Question 9:
When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?
A. Add a step to run the debug ip routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug ip routing command.
B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.
C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.
D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 10:
What is the effective way to manage computing costs in a public cloud?
A. Monitor data transfers to minimize cost.
B. Use dedicated hardware for all instances.
C. Select the largest instance option available in order to pay for only one instance.
D. Make use of elastic services and scale on demand.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 11:
A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for inter container communication. Which command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
A. EXPOSE 8080
B. FIREWALL ADD-PORT 8080
C. PORT 8080
D. OPEN PORT 8080
Correct Answer: A
New Question 12:
How long do analysis systems such as Elasticsearch, Logstash, and Kibana Stack handle ingesting unstructured logs from different devices in various formats?
A. All devices that generate syslogs must use agents that process the local logs and transmit them in a specific format to the ELK Stack.
B. All logs are stored in their unstructured text format, and the ELK Stack performs data analysis by intelligently parsing the logs using machine learning algorithms.
C. All different message formats are parsed separately using custom filters, and the resulting structured data is stored for later analysis.
D. A single, comprehensive log format is defined on the ELK Stack. All incoming logs, regardless of format, are transformed to match the comprehensive format, and only applicable fields are populated.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?
A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.
B. The requests library is not imported.
C. The requests library is not installed.
D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 14:
Which action should the system administrator take to start looking for the cause of this issue?
A. Check to make sure Nginx is running.
B. Check for response times in Nginx logs.
C. Check to make sure the web API response is coming back in JSON.
D. Check the size of the database that the application is using.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps. NetDevOps builds and manages networks as a system that enables network services to be consumed in a DevOps approach. Organizations practicing NetDevOps see changes in the _________ as routine and expected activities, with a well-
defined and practiced process for _________ , testing, and __________ network changes. By making them routine, network changes can be small and simple.
A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?
A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.
Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?
A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
A. ENTRYPOINT
B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]
C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]
The company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.
Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)
An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.
Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?
A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.
B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.
C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.
D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.
When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?
A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.
B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.
C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.
D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.
A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.
Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?
A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.
B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.
C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.
D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.
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A development team is using a version control system that has a centralized workflow. Which feature of the version control system ensures the integrity of the central repository?
A. central common code versioning backup
B. built-in conflict resolution mechanism
C. distributed nature of the version control system architecture
D. tracked code changes of the developers
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the Cisco Network Management Platforms that support the capabilities on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 3:
What is the function of an Ethernet switch in a networking environment?
A. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the IP address
B. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the MAC address
C. to provide IP addressing to connected hosts
D. to block unwanted traffic
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the actions from the left that the contents of this Dockerfile accomplish onto the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 5:
What is a capability of an agentless configuration management system?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.
D. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?
A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.
B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.
C. Using functions, rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.
D. Modify the code to use loops.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
How do XML and JSON compare regarding functionality?
A. XML provides support for mapping data structures into host languages than JSON.
B. XML provides more human readability than JSON.
C. JSON provides more support for data types than XML.
D. JSON natively supports arrays and XML does not natively support arrays.
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
Which IP service synchronizes the time across devices?
A. DNS
B. NTP
C. SNMP
D. NAT
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
What is a feature of XML compared to other data formats?
A. It uses tags to define the structure.
B. It uses parenthesis for key-value pairs.
C. It uses indentation to define the structure.
D. It uses namespaces for list representation.
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
An automation script fails to connect to an internal server exactly 1 out of 2 times it is executed. This behavior is seen in different clients. Which networking device must be at fault?
A. load balancer
B. laptop on which the script is running
C. switch
D. router
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
What is the function of the default gateway in a network?
A. to drop traffic that is destined for the default gateway
B. to drop traffic that is not destined for the default gateway
C. to forward traffic to the same subnet
D. to forward traffic to different subnets
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
A developer is part of a team that is working on an open-source project in which source code is hosted in a public GitHub repository.
While the application was built, security concerns were addressed by encrypting the credentials on the server. After a few months, the developer realized that a hacker managed to gain access to the account. The exhibit contains part of the source code for the login process.
Why was the attacker able to access the developer\’s account?
A. The encoded credentials were available in the source code.
B. The application was not encrypting the communication with the server.
C. The credentials were encrypted in the source code.
D. An SSL certificate was used instead of the TLS protocol to authenticate.
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?
A. application/yaml-data+json
B. application/yang-data+json
C. application/xml-data+json
D. application/json-data+xml
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:
1.
MySQL database that stores data about customers
2.
HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache
3.
REST API is written in Python
What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users
B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller
C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model
D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created
E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency
Correct Answer: AB
Question 15:
Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?
A. Artifactory
B. Jira
C. ITSM
D. Git
Correct Answer: A
…
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Share the latest exam questions and answers of the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam online, and use ChatGPT to answer the most popular topics that all candidates care about. Using AI can help you better prepare for the next exam, AI will not help you with the exam, but it can provide the exam details you need.
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ChatGPT’s answer:
Q1: What is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is a test offered by Cisco that validates a candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and operating core enterprise network technologies. The exam is one of the requirements for obtaining the CCNP Enterprise certification, which is a professional-level certification designed for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who work with enterprise networking technologies.
The 350-401 ENCOR exam covers a range of topics, including network infrastructure, security, automation, virtualization, and network assurance. Specifically, the exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in the following areas:
Architecture
Virtualization
Infrastructure
Network assurance
Security
Automation
The exam consists of 90-110 questions and lasts for 120 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates must score a minimum of 825 out of 1000 points. Passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, along with passing one of the concentration exams, is required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.
Q2: What are the 350-401 ENCOR certification examination methods?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam can be taken using two methods:
1. Online Proctored Exam: This is an online version of the exam that can be taken from any location with a reliable internet connection. The exam is proctored remotely, which means that candidates must follow strict exam rules and regulations to ensure a secure and fair testing environment. The online proctored exam can be scheduled through Pearson VUE, the official testing provider for Cisco certifications.
2. In-Person Exam: This is a traditional exam that can be taken at a Pearson VUE testing center. Candidates must travel to the testing center to take the exam, which is proctored on-site. The in-person exam is generally available in areas where the online proctored exam is not possible.
Both exam methods cover the same content and have the same number of questions, format, and time limit. However, the online proctored exam may have some additional technical requirements, such as a webcam, microphone, and a quiet testing environment. It’s important to note that both exam methods require candidates to register and pay for the exam in advance through the Pearson VUE website.
Q3: How to pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?
Passing the 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam requires a combination of knowledge, skills, and test-taking strategies. Here are some tips to help you prepare and pass the exam:
1. Understand the exam objectives: Review the exam objectives and the topics that will be covered in the exam. You can find the exam objectives on the Cisco website or through the exam study materials.
2. Use official study materials: Cisco offers a range of study materials, including books, video courses, and practice exams. These materials are designed to help you prepare for the exam and provide an in-depth understanding of the exam topics.
3. Practice, practice, practice: Practice is key to passing the exam. Use the official practice exams and other resources (https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html) to test your knowledge and identify areas that require more study.
4. Build a lab: Build a lab environment using Cisco networking equipment or software simulations to gain practical experience in configuring and troubleshooting the technologies covered in the exam.
5. Join a study group: Join a study group or online forum to connect with other candidates, ask questions, and share study resources.
6. Manage your time: The exam is timed, so it’s important to manage your time during the exam. Pace yourself and don’t spend too much time on any one question.
7. Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and make sure you understand what is being asked. Look for keywords that can help you identify the correct answer.
8. Eliminate wrong answers: If you’re unsure of the answer, eliminate the wrong answers to narrow down the choices and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
9. Review your answers: Once you’ve completed the exam, review your answers and make sure you’ve answered all the questions.
By following these tips and investing time and effort into your study, you can increase your chances of passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam and earning your CCNP Enterprise certification.
Q4: Is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam worth it?
The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is definitely worth it for network engineers and other IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. Here are some reasons why:
1. Industry recognition: The CCNP Enterprise certification, which is obtained by passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, is recognized worldwide as a valuable credential for network engineers and other IT professionals.
2. Career advancement: Earning the CCNP Enterprise certification can help you advance your career by demonstrating your knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. It can also make you a more competitive candidate for job opportunities and promotions.
3. Skill development: Preparing for and passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam requires a deep understanding of enterprise network technologies, which can help you develop your skills and become a more effective network engineer or IT professional.
4. Networking opportunities: Joining a study group or online forum to prepare for the exam can help you connect with other IT professionals and build your professional network.
5. Cisco partnership benefits: If your organization is a Cisco partner, having CCNP Enterprise-certified professionals on staff can help you achieve partner status and access partner benefits.
Overall, the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is definitely worth it for IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. It can help you advance your career, develop your skills, and gain industry recognition for your expertise.
Real Valid 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and answers for free from Lead4Pass:
What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100 mW?
A. 75dBm
B. 150dBm
C. 6dBm
D. 125dBm
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco StackWise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.)
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?
A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server
Correct Answer: B
Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.
How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?
A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.
B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.
C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client
D. The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)
A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list
B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference
C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar
D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference
E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only
Correct Answer: AC
Question 11:
What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?
A. SIP flow information
B. Wi-Fi multimedia
C. traffic specification
D. VoIP media session awareness
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?
A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.
B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.
C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.
D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables
Correct Answer: C
“TCAM is most useful for building tables for searching on longest matches such as IP routing tables organized by IP prefixes. The TCAM table stores ACL, QoS, and other information generally associated with upper-layer processing. As a result of using TCAM, applying ACLs does not affect the performance of the switch.”
A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.
B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct.
C. It opens a client connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.
D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.
Correct Answer: C
the client is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the client to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).
Question 14:
A customer has 20 stores located throughout the city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?
A. angle of arrival
B. presence
C. hyper location
D. trilateration
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?
A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network
Correct Answer: C
Cisco TrustSec uses tags to represent logical group privilege. This tag, called a Security Group Tag (SGT), is used in access policies. The SGT is understood and is used to enforce traffic by Cisco switches, routers, and firewalls. Cisco TrustSec is defined in three phases: classification, propagation, and enforcement. When users and devices connect to a network, the network assigns a specific security group. This process is called classification. Classification can be based on the results of the authentication or by associating the SGT with an IP, VLAN, or port profile (-> Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch\’ and answer \’security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch\’ are not correct as they say “assigned … on a switch” only. Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network\’ is not correct either as it says “assigned to each router”).
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When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.
What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?
A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.
B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.
C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.
D. Javik’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption.
The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.
After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages.
What is the attack performed in the above scenario?
A. Timing-based attack
B. Side-channel attack
C. Downgrade security attack
D. Cache-based attack
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization.
In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.
What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?
A. Proxy scanner
B. Agent-based scanner
C. Network-based scanner
D. Cluster scanner
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network-based scanner
A network-based vulnerability scanner, in simplistic terms, is the process of identifying loopholes in a computer’s network or IT assets, which hackers and threat actors can exploit.
By implementing this process, one can successfully identify their organization’s current risk(s).
This is not where the buck stops; one can also verify the effectiveness of your system’s security measures while improving internal and external defenses.
Through this review, an organization is well equipped to take an extensive inventory of all systems, including operating systems, installed software, security patches, hardware, firewalls, anti-virus software, and much more.
Agent-based scanner
Agent-based scanners make use of software scanners on each and every device; the results of the scans are reported back to the central server. Such scanners are well-equipped to find and report on a range of vulnerabilities.
NOTE:
This option is not suitable for us, since for it to work, you need to install a special agent on each computer before you start collecting data from them.
QUESTION 4:
There have been concerns in your network that the wireless network component is not sufficiently secure.
You perform a vulnerability scan of the wireless network and find that it is using an old encryption protocol that was designed to mimic wired encryption, what encryption protocol is being used?
A. WEP
B. RADIUS
C. WPA
D. WPA3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) may be a security protocol, laid out in the IEEE wireless local area network (Wi-Fi) standard, 802.11b, that’s designed to supply a wireless local area network (WLAN) with A level of security and privacy like what’s usually expected of a wired LAN.
A wired local area network (LAN) is usually protected by physical security mechanisms (controlled access to a building, for example) that are effective for a controlled physical environment but could also be ineffective for WLANs because radio waves aren’t necessarily bound by the walls containing the network.
WEP seeks to determine similar protection thereto offered by the wired network’s physical security measures by encrypting data transmitted over the WLAN. encoding protects the vulnerable wireless link between clients and access points; once this measure has been taken, other typical LAN security mechanisms like password protection, end-to-end encryption, virtual private networks (VPNs), and authentication are often put in situ to make sure privacy.
A research group from the University of California at Berkeley recently published a report citing “major security flaws” in WEP that left WLANs using the protocol susceptible to attacks (called wireless equivalent privacy attacks). within the course of the group’s examination of the technology, they were ready to intercept and modify transmissions and gain access to restricted networks.
The Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance (WECA) claims that WEP ? which is included in many networking products. was never intended to be the only security mechanism for a WLAN, and that, in conjunction with traditional security practices, it’s very effective.
QUESTION 5:
Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?
A. Rootkit
B. Trojan
C. Worm
D. Adware
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
How does a denial-of-service attack work?
A. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service
B. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication
C. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network
D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST, HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server.
You can detect all these methods (GET, POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using the NMAP script engine.
What Nmap script will help you with this task?
A. HTTP-methods
B. HTTP enum
C. HTTP-headers
D. HTTP-git
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?
A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.
B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of cardholder data over any public network.
C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.
D. Limit access to cardholder data to as few individuals as possible.
In a MAC flooding attack, a switch is fed with many Ethernet frames, each containing different source MAC addresses, by the attacker. Switches have limited memory for mapping various MAC addresses to physical ports.
What happens when the CAM table becomes full?
A. Switch then acts as a hub by broadcasting packets to all machines on the network
B. The CAM overflow table will cause the switch to crash causing Denial of Service
C. The switch replaces the outgoing frame switch factory default MAC address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF: FF
D. Every packet is dropped and the switch sends out SNMP alerts to the IDS port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key.
Suppose a malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.
Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct object reference vulnerability?
A. “GET /restricted/goldtransfer?to=Rob&from=1 or 1=1′ HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com”
B. “GET /restricted/\r\n\%00account%00Ned%00access HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”
C. “GET /restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host westbank.com”
D. “GET /restricted/ HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question shows a classic example of an IDOR vulnerability. Rob substitutes Ned’s name in the “name” parameter and if the developer has not fixed this vulnerability, then Rob will gain access to Ned’s account.
Below you will find more detailed information about IDOR vulnerability.
Insecure direct object references (IDOR) are a cybersecurity issue that occurs when a web application developer uses an identifier for direct access to an internal implementation object but provides no additional access control and/or authorization checks.
For example, an IDOR vulnerability would happen if the URL of a transaction could be changed through client-side user input to show unauthorized data of another transaction. Most web applications use simple IDs to reference objects.
For example, a user in a database will usually be referred to via the user ID. The same user ID is the primary key to the database column containing user information and is generated automatically. The database key generation algorithm is very simple: it usually uses the next available integer.
The same database ID generation mechanisms are used for all other types of database records.
The approach described above is legitimate but not recommended because it could enable the attacker to enumerate all users. If it’s necessary to maintain this approach, the developer must at least make absolutely sure that more than just a reference is needed to access resources.
The 74657 transactions could be valid transactions belonging to another user. The malicious hacker should not be authorized to see it. However, if the developer made an error, the attacker would see this transaction, and hence we would have an insecure direct object reference vulnerability.
QUESTION 11:
Session splicing is an IDS evasion technique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple, small-sized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack signatures.
Which tool can be used to perform session splicing attacks?
A. TCP splice
B. Burp
C. Hydra
D. Whisker
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Many IDS reassemble communication streams; hence, if a packet is not received within a reasonable period, many IDS stop reassembling and handling that stream. If the application under attack keeps a session active for a longer time than that spent by the IDS on reassembling it, the IDS will stop.
As a result, any session after the IDS stops reassembling the sessions will be susceptible to malicious data theft by attackers. The IDS will not log any attack attempt after a successful splicing attack. Attackers can use tools such as Nessus for session splicing attacks.?
Did you know that the EC-Council exam shows how well you know their official book? So, there is no “Whisker” in it. In the chapter “Evading IDS” -> “Session Splicing”, the recommended tool for performing a session-splicing attack is Nessus.
Where Wisker came from is not entirely clear, but I will assume the author of the question found it while copying Wikipedia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_detection_system_evasion_techniques One basic technique is to split the attack payload into multiple small packets so that the IDS must reassemble the packet stream to detect the attack.
A simple way of splitting packets is by fragmenting them, but an adversary can also simply craft packets with small payloads. The ‘whisker’ evasion tool calls crafting packets with small payloads ‘session splicing’.
By itself, small packets will not evade any IDS that reassembles packet streams. However, small packets can be further modified in order to complicate reassembly and detection. One evasion technique is to pause between sending parts of the attack, hoping that the IDS will time out before the target computer does. A second evasion technique is to send the packets out of order, confusing simple packet re-assemblers but not the target computer.
NOTE: Yes, I found scraps of information about the tool that existed in 2012, but I can not give you unverified information. According to the official tutorials, the correct answer is Nessus, but if you know anything about Wisker, please write in the QA section. Maybe this question will be updated soon, but I’m not sure about that.
QUESTION 12:
Which Intrusion Detection System is the best applicable for large environments where critical assets on the network need extra scrutiny and is ideal for observing sensitive network segments?
A. Honeypots
B. Firewalls
C. Network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS)
D. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13:
Given below are the different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle.
1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management.
A. 2–>5–>6–>1–>3–>4
B. 2–>1–>5–>6–>4–>3
C. 2–>4–>5–>3–>6–> 1
D. 1–>2–>3–>4–>5–>6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14:
Miley, a professional hacker, decided to attack a target organization’s network. To perform the attack, she used a tool to send fake ARP messages over the target network to link her MAC address with the target system’s IP address.
By performing this, Miley received messages directed to the victim’s MAC address and further used the tool to intercept, steal, modify, and block sensitive communication to the target system.
What is the tool employed by Miley to perform the above attack?
A. Gobbler
B. KDerpNSpoof
C. BetterCAP
D. Wireshark
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15:
ViruXine.W32 virus hides its presence by changing the underlying executable code.
This Virus code mutates while keeping the original algorithm intact, the code changes itself each time it runs, but the function of the code (its semantics) will not change at all.
Here is a section of the Virus code:
What is this technique called?
A. Polymorphic Virus
B. Metamorphic Virus
C. Dravidic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
Correct Answer: A
…
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Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 3:
DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. A training coordinator must post links to Webex recordings on a company SharePoint site. This is usually a manual process, but a DevOps engineer wants to automate it using Webex XML APIs. After a successful LstRecording call wrapped in xml2js, the ‘console dir(result)’ output is shown in the exhibit. Using ‘dot notation’, drag and drop the code below onto the code snippet to output the streamURL for each recording.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 4:
Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)
A. Request a recording link for playback.
B. Send a text message to the meeting host.
C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.
Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?
A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.
B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.
C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.
Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?
A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);
Correct Answer: D
The post method can be used for the HTTP requests that set up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is already a connection to a device for this jsxapi.code snippet. Which snippet completes the code so that the connected device makes a call to the user [email protected]?
A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?
A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms
B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms
C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms
D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships
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What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?
A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.
B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.
C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools
D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2:
An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.
What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?
A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3:
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?
A. known-plaintext B. replay C. dictionary D. man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 4:
Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?
A. threat intelligence B. risk scores C. vendor suggestions D. vulnerability exposure
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5:
What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash. B. Tampered images are used as evidence. C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations. D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 6:
What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)
A. privilege escalation B. DDoS attack C. phishing D. man-in-the-middle E. pharming
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?
A. info B. tags C. MIME D. name
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 8:
Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?
A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident. B. The total incident escalations per week. C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident. D. The total incident escalations per month.
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 9:
An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?
A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion. B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server. C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources. D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.
An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. management and reporting B. traffic filtering C. adaptive AVC D. metrics collection and exporting E. application recognition
Correct Answer: AE
NEW QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of attack is being executed?
A. SQL injection B. cross-site scripting C. cross-site request forgery D. command injection
What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: C
An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.
NEW QUESTION 13:
Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?
A. Biba B. Object-capability C. Take-Grant D. Zero Trust
Correct Answer: D
Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.
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