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[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass with PDF and VCE

admin November 1, 2022

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)	leads4pass	Nov 01, 2022	300-725 dumps questions 1-15

New Question 16:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html

New Question 17:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

New Question 18:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

New Question 19:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

New Question 20:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

New Question 21:

Which behavior is seen while the policy trace tool is used to troubleshoot a Cisco WSA?

A. External DLP policies are evaluated by the tool

B. A real client request is processed and a EUN page is displayed

C. SOCKS policies are evaluated by the tool

D. The web proxy does not record the policy trace test requests in the access log when the tool is in use

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html#con_1415277

New Question 22:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)

New Question 23:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity-Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

New Question 24:

Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?

A. PAC

B. WCCP

C. ITD

D. PBR

Correct Answer: A

In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.

New Question 25:

Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco WSA devices

B. Cisco ISE

C. Cisco ASAv

D. Cisco Security MARS

E. Cisco Cloud Web Security gateways

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_6/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_6_1.pdf

New Question 26:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

New Question 27:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)

New Question 28:

Which two caches must be cleared on a Cisco WSA to resolve an issue in processing requests? (Choose two.)

A. authentication cache

B. application cache

C. logging cache

D. DNS cache

E. HTTP cache

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

New Question 29:

Which statement about configuring an identification profile for machine authentication is true?

A. Cloud Web Security Connector mode with an active directory enabled supports machine authentication

B. Identification profile machine ID is supported locally, but the Cisco WSA does not support machine ID authentication

C. Cloud Web Security with Kerberos enabled supports machine authentication

D. If an Active Directory realm is used, identification can be performed for an authenticated user or IP address but not for a machine ID

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01001.html

New Question 30:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

…

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DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions latest update from Lead4Pass

admin October 10, 2022

leads4pass continues to share the latest 15 DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions and answers to help you study online, welcome to download the 300-915 dumps provided by leads4pass:https://www.leads4pass.com/300-915.html Contains 59 practical and valid exam questions and answers, and provides PDF files and VCE simulation tools to help you quickly learn and pass the DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam.

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)	leads4pass	Oct 10, 2022	300-915 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q15)

Continue your DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam knowledge:

New Question 16:

Which two states are applications expected to be seen in when they are managed on Cisco IOx? (Choose two.)

A. DEACTIVATED

B. ACTIVATED

C. ALLOWED

D. STOPPED

E. VALIDATED

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 17:

When an RS232 device is connected to a Cisco IR829 router, the data collected is not being parsed correctly by the edge application.

Which two steps should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. SSH access on the Cisco IR829 router must be enabled for IOx Guest OS.

B. Communication mode must be set to half duplex over a serial connection.

C. Serial cable length should not exceed 1.5 meters.

D. Ensure that communication parameters like baud rate and parity are set correctly.

E. Set the cable connections based on the PIN layout from the sensor vendor.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 18:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about MQTT messaging are true? (Choose two.)

A. Result in code 5 means the connection is accepted; result code 0 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

B. Redundant ClientIDs are supported by MQTT brokers.

C. MQTT does not support a “keep alive” functionality because it runs on top of TCP.

D. Result code 0 means the connection is accepted; result code 5 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

E. Brokers can send the Last Will and Testament messages on behalf of the client.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 19:

How do the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolios support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.

B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.

C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.

D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 20:

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an error on an application descriptor for a Docker app in Cisco IOx (package.YAML), the app type appears to be missing. Which app type must be added to the snippet to resolve the issue?

A. paas

B. docker-vm

C. docker

D. docker-app

Correct Answer: C

New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about data flow are true? (Choose two.)

A. Another AMQP broker should be implemented on the customer cloud.

B. Instead of AMQP, MQTT should be used for compatibility issues in a cloud-to-cloud connection.

C. A VPN tunnel is not necessary because the MQTT payload is encrypted by default.

D. The gateway must stay constantly connected to the Kinetic cloud to avoid blank data sets, even when using caching functions.

E. The Python application could use the paho-mqtt library.

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 22:

Which two statements define the mechanism for console access of the Guest Operating System from the Cisco IR829 router? (Choose two.)

A. The Guest OS can be accessed by default on Telnet port 2070 from the Cisco IR829 console.

B. The Guest OS console is available directly by the AUX port 3362 from the Cisco IR829 router.

C. The Guest OS can be accessed directly using the console port on the Cisco IR829 router.

D. The Guest OS can be accessed by initiating SSH from the Cisco IR829 console.

E. The Guest OS console is available only when a static IP is configured on the host.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 23:

The environment for an Industrial IoT project in a large open pit mine is being scoped. The location has a large amount of dust and the device will be exposed to less than 1 meter of water temporarily.

When the edge device is being chosen, which Ingress protection rating must be used?

A. IP37

B. IP61

C. IP67

D. IP76

Correct Answer: C

New Question 24:

Which two statements about how to provision and manage data originators in a cloud environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The provisioning of digital identities is the responsibility of the data originators.

B. Cloud providers offer services for automated device provisioning, which allows the lifecycle of the cloud representation for data originators to be managed.

C. Cloud providers offer application programming interfaces, which allow a programmatic provisioning of data originators.

D. There is no need to provision and manage access for data originators in the cloud.

E. access to public clouds must be configured and managed manually.

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code completes the Dockerfile?

A. RUN chmod 777 /usr/bin/sample.py

B. RUN chown root:root /usr/bin/sample.py

C. WORKDIR /usr/bin

D. USER root

Correct Answer: A

New Question 26:

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.

Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshoot.

B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.

C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.

D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.

E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 27:

Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers? (Choose two.)

A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.

B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low-latency communication.

C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.

D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.

E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 28:

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.

Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status

B. ioxclient application metrics

C. ioxclient application getconfig

D. ioxclient application info

Correct Answer: D

New Question 29:

Where are edge data services typically instantiated?

A. at the edge of the network

B. in the cloud

C. in the data center

D. in a private cloud

Correct Answer: A

New Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. A new application has just been developed as a Docker container. What is the missing step for packaging the container ready for deployment in IOx?

A. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.

B. Build the package.YAML files.

C. Build the package. cert file to sign the app.

D. Log in to the device manager and load the application.

Correct Answer: B

…

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Latest updated CCNA 200-301 dumps from Lead4Pass

admin September 20, 2022

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Read CCNA 200-301 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions	Release time	Exam name	From	Previous issue
15	Sep 20, 2022	Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)	leads4pass	Sep 2, 2022

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 2:

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Double-Tagging attack:

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B

receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This

results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

New Question 3:

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

New Question 4:

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.

1.

“IP route”: display the routing table

2.

“IP addr show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 7:

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

New Question 8:

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 9:

Drag-drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.

Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-

paradigm programming approach.

A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest and is a file with a .pp extension.

New Question 10:

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/ports_and_interfaces.html

New Question 11:

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Refer to the exhibit.

New Question 12:

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 13:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 14:

An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 15:

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

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Cisco 300-425 ENWLSD exam candidates can successfully pass the exam with the latest version of the 300-425 dumps

admin September 13, 2022

The latest version of 300-425 dumps released today, proven, correct, and effective, candidates can use the PDF and VCE exam tools provided by leads4pass to help you practice all exam questions, guaranteeing you 100% success in passing the Cisco 300-425 ENWLSD exam (Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks).

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The latest Cisco 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers are shared online:

Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam	Previous issue
15	Sep 13, 2022	Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) (300-425)

Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

C. UDP 16667 for control plane, UDP 16666 for data plane

D. UDP 16666 for control plane, UDP 16667 for data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

Question 2:

A customer asks an engineer to explain the concept of mobility domains and mobility groups. Which statement does the engineer respond with?

A. A mobility group does not constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also does not constrain AP fail-over between controllers when the WLC is in the same mobility domain.

B. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other but, if an anchor WLC is present it must be in the same mobility domain for communication to be possible.

C. If WLCs are in the same mobility domain, they communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

D. WLCs do not need to be in the same mobility domain to communicate with each other. Mobility groups constrain the distribution of the security context of a client and also constrain AP fail-over between controllers.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-0/configuration-guide/b_cg80/b_cg80_chapter_010011.html

Question 3:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

Question 4:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

Question 5:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers to a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

Question 6:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

So, each AP will have 25 clients. Minimum 4 APs are sufficient.

Question 14:

Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice-over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)

A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.

B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Management.

C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.

D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached 80 dBs or below.

E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/vowlan/41dg/vowlan41dg-book/vowlan_ch5.html

Question 15:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

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Cisco 200-901 dumps: serves all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates

admin August 29, 2022

The newly updated Cisco 200-901 dumps contain 294 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 200-901 dumps PDF and 200-901 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 200-901 DEVASC exam.

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Share the latest Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 14:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

New Question 15:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Correct Answer: A

…

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[Updated 2022]Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam dumps best resources, easily pass 010-151 exam

admin August 29, 2022

Where do I get the Cisco 010-151 exam questions? ExamineeVeryThing shares the latest and most effective Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 010-151 exam questions throughout the year.
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Cisco 010-151 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 google drive
Effective Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions
Related 010-151 Popular Exam resources
leads4pass Year-round Discount Code
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Latest Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 010-151 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1q-BVVW4uYdXXeS_wL1gZQPx3m3tYgvEV

010-151 DCTECH – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dctech.html

The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas;

Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement, software, and configuration backup and restores, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement,
and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas;
basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products, and hardware components.

The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break-fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including software and configuration backup and restore, check the safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.

[Updated 2022] 010-151 Dumps exam questions and answers

Question 1:

Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?

A. routing

B. tunneling

C. handshaking

D. transporting

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?

A. any-to-many

B. many-to-any

C. any-to-any

D. any-to-one

E. one-to-any

F. one-to-one

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 5:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more Cisco 010-151 exam questions and answers

Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. leads4pass 010-151 exam question q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. leads4pass 010-151 exam question q10

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for
100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which device provides analysis of Fibre Channel traffic without any network disruption?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Data Analyzer Adapter
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Device
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Channel Analyzer Adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down.
B. Disassociate the service profile.
C. Decommission the server.
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server.
Correct Answer: C

Related 010-151 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	Cisco	leads4pass	leads4pass Total Questions
Cisco CCT Data Center	leads4pass 010-151 dumps pdf	leads4pass 010-151 youtube	010-151 DCTECH – Cisco	https://www.leads4pass.com/010-151.html	136 Q&A

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312-50V11 dumps [2022] to help you successfully pass the CEH v11 certification exam

admin June 17, 2022

CEH v11 certification exam candidates, you can now use the 312-50V11 dumps exam material to help you successfully pass the exam.
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Part of the 312-50V11 dumps exam material online practice test:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

“……..is an attack-type for a rogue Wi-Fi access point that appears to be a legitimate one offered on the premises, but actually has been set up to eavesdrop on wireless communications. It is the wireless version of the phishing scam. An attacker fools wireless users into connecting a laptop or mobile phone to a tainted hot spot by posing as a legitimate provider. This type of attack may be used to steal the passwords of unsuspecting users by either snooping the communication link or by phishing, which involves setting up a fraudulent website and luring people there.”
Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice.

A. Evil Twin Attack
B. Sinkhole Attack
C. Collision Attack
D. Signal Jamming Attack

QUESTION 2:

How can rainbow tables be defeated?

A. Use of non-dictionary words
B. All uppercase character passwords
C. Password salting
D. Lockout accounts under brute force password cracking attempts

QUESTION 3:

You want to analyze packets on your wireless network. Which program would you use?

A. Wireshark with Airpcap
B. Airsnort with Airpcap
C. Wireshark with Winpcap
D. Ethereal with Winpcap

QUESTION 4:

Nicolas just found a vulnerability on a public-facing system that is considered a zero-day vulnerability. He sent an email to the owner of the public system describing the problem and how the owner can protect themselves from that vulnerability. He also sent an email to Microsoft informing them of the problem that their systems are exposed to. What type of hacker is Nicolas?

A. Red hat
B. white hat
C. Black hat
D. Gray hat

QUESTION 5:

Ron, a security professional, was pen testing web applications and SaaS platforms used by his company. While testing, he found a vulnerability that allows hackers to gain unauthorized access to API objects and perform actions such as view, updating, and delete sensitive data of the company. What is the API vulnerability revealed in the above scenario?

A. Code injections
B. Improper use of CORS
C. No ABAC validation
D. Business logic flaws

QUESTION 6:

A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server. Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B. Require all employees to change their anti-virus program with a new one
C. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

QUESTION 7:

Bobby, an attacker, targeted a user and decided to hijack and intercept all their wireless communications.
He installed a fake communication tower between two authentic endpoints to mislead the victim. Bobby used this virtual tower to interrupt the data transmission between the user and the real tower, attempting to hijack an active session, upon receiving the users request. Bobby manipulated the traffic with the virtual
tower and redirected the victim to a malicious website.
What is the attack performed by Bobby in the above scenario?

A. Wardriving
B. KRACK attack
C. jamming signal attack
D. aLTEr attack

QUESTION 8:

Firewalk has just completed the second phase (the scanning phase) and a technician receives the output shown below.
What conclusions can be drawn based on these scan results?

TCP port 21 no response
TCP port 22 no response
TCP port 23 time-to-live exceeded

A. The lack of response from ports 21 and 22 indicates that those services are not running on the destination server

B. The scan on port 23 was able to make a connection to the destination host prompting the firewall to respond with a TTL error

C. The scan on port 23 passed through the filtering device. This indicates that port 23 was not blocked at the firewall

D. The firewall itself is blocking ports 21 through 23 and a service is listening on port 23 of the target host

QUESTION 9:

Why is a penetration test considered to be more thorough than a vulnerability scan?

A. Vulnerability scans only do host discovery and port scanning by default.

B. A penetration test actively exploits vulnerabilities in the targeted infrastructure, while a vulnerability scan does not typically involve active exploitation.

C. It is not ? a penetration test is often performed by an automated tool, while a vulnerability scan requires active engagement.

D. The tools used by penetration testers tend to have much more comprehensive vulnerability databases.

QUESTION 10:

What is the file that determines the basic configuration (specifically activities, services, broadcast receivers, etc.) in an Android application?

A. AndroidManifest.xml
B. APK.info
C. resources.asrc
D. classes.dex

QUESTION 11:

You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You
harvested two employees\’ emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to
send it to the employees via email.
Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Weaponization
D. Exploitation

QUESTION 12:

Louis, a professional hacker, had used specialized tools or search engines to encrypt all his browsing activity and navigate anonymously to obtain sensitive/hidden information about official government or federal databases. After gathering the Information, he successfully performed an attack on the target government organization without being traced. Which of the following techniques is described in the above scenario?

A. Dark web footprinting
B. VoIP footpnnting
C. VPN footprinting
D. website footprinting

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL?

A. [inurl:]
B. [related:]
C. [info:]
D. [site:]

Verify answer:

Number:	Answers:	Illustrate:
Q1	A
Q2	C
Q3	A
Q4	B	A white hat (or a white hat hacker) is an ethical computer hacker, or a computer security expert, who focuses on penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensures the safety of an organization\’s information systems. Ethical hacking may be a term meant to imply a broader category than simply penetration testing. Contrasted with black hat, a malicious hacker, the name comes from Western films, where heroic and antagonistic cowboys might traditionally wear a white and a black hat respectively. While a white hat hacker hacks under good intentions with permission, and a black hat hacker, most frequently unauthorized, has malicious intent, there\’s a 3rd kind referred to as a gray hat hacker who hacks with good intentions but sometimes without permission.White hat hackers can also add teams called “sneakers and/or hacker clubs”,red teams, or tiger teams.While penetration testing concentrates on attacking software and computer systems from the beginning ?scanning ports, examining known defects in protocols and applications running on the system and patch installations, as an example ?ethical hacking may include other things. A full-blown ethical hack might include emailing staff to invite password details, searching through executive\’s dustbins and typically breaking and entering, without the knowledge and consent of the targets. Only the owners, CEOs and Board Members (stake holders) who asked for such a censoring of this magnitude are aware. to undertake to duplicate a number of the destructive techniques a true attack might employ, ethical hackers may arrange for cloned test systems, or organize a hack late in the dark while systems are less critical. In most up-to-date cases these hacks perpetuate for the long-term con (days, if not weeks, of long-term human infiltration into an organization). Some examples include leaving USB/flash key drives with hidden auto-start software during a public area as if someone lost the tiny drive and an unsuspecting employee found it and took it.Some other methods of completing these include:?DoS attacks?Social engineering tactics?Reverse engineering? Network security?Disk and memory forensics?Vulnerability research?Security scanners such as:?W3af?Nessus?Burp suite? Frameworks such as:?Metasploit?Training PlatformsThese methods identify and exploit known security vulnerabilities and plan to evade security to realize entry into secured areas. they\’re ready to do that by hiding software and system back-doors\\’ which will be used as a link to information or access that a non-ethical hacker, also referred to asblack-hat\’ or `grey-hat\’, might want to succeed in Exam E
Q5	B
Q6	A
Q7	D
Q8	C
Q9	B
Q10	A	The AndroidManifest.xml file contains information about your package, including components of the appliance like activities, services, broadcast receivers, content providers, etc. It performs other tasks also:?it\’s responsible to guard the appliance to access any protected parts by providing the permissions. It also declares the android API that the appliance goes to use. It lists the instrumentation classes. The instrumentation classes provide profiling and other information. This information is removed just before the appliance is published etc. This is the specified XML file for all the android applications and is located inside the basis directory.
Q11	D	At this stage exploiting a vulnerability to execute code on the victim\’s direct channel for remote manipulation of the victim is the objective. Here ancient hardening measures add resiliency, however, custom defense capabilities are necessary to prevent zero-day exploits at this stage. once the weapon is delivered to the victim host, exploitation triggers intruders\’ code. Most often, exploitation targets Associate in the Nursing application or software vulnerability, however it may additionally additional merely exploit the users themselves or leverage Associate in Nursing software feature that auto- executes code. In recent years this has become a district of experience within the hacking community that is commonly incontestible at events like Blackhat, Defcon, and also the like.
Q12	A	VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) is a web convention that permits the transmission of voice brings over the web. It does as such by changing over the ordinary telephone signals into advanced signs. Virtual Private Networks(VPN) give a protected association with an association \’ organization. Along these lines, VoIP traffic can disregard an SSL-based VPN, successfully scrambling VoIP administrations. When leading surveillance, in the underlying phases of VoIP footprinting, the accompanying freely accessible data can be normal: All open ports and administrations of the gadgets associated with the VoIP organization The public VoIP worker’s IP address The working arrangement of the worker running VoIP The organization framework
Q13	B

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Pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam using the 300-920 dumps

admin June 8, 2022

Use the 300-920 Dumps as your preparation plan to help you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

leads4pass 300-920 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/300-920.html, contains 60 newly updated exam questions and answers. You can go to the 300-920 dumps page to use PDF or VCE study tools to help you Easy Learning 300-920 DEVWBX Exam core content to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam on your first attempt.
The 300-920 dumps questions are reviewed by Cisco subject matter experts, are authentic, and have a 99.1% exam pass rate, ensuring you pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam with ease.

300-920 DEVWBX exam details you must know:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-920
Exam Name: Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD

Experience a portion of 300-920 Free Dumps online:

QUESTION 1:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:
1.
retrieves the details of an individual user
2.
checks what licenses they have already
3.
updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 3:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms
B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms
C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms
D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.
B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.
C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.
D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

QUESTION 6:

Which XML snippet does an admin use with a Webex Meetings XML API request to retrieve info on multiple users?

A. .*
B. .*
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/webex-xml-api-reference-guide/#!getuser

QUESTION 7:

Which code adds a Space Widget in an HTML script that uses the CSS Webex CDN?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/widgets

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An end-user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4
B. line 14
C. line 15
D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123
B. [email protected]=abc123
C. [email protected]=abc123
D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the “and” symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.
B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.
C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.
D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.
E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://auth0.com/learn/refresh-tokens/

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.
B. The credential was expired.
C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.
D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has a capital letter and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t check that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, webexmeetings XML API service has processed the request.

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing. Which HTTP header expected in this response?

A. Push
B. Link
C. Patch
D. Put

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer-portal-intb.ciscospark.com/docs/api/basics

……

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300-610 dumps update | Cisco 300-610 DCID exam material

admin May 27, 2022

300-610 dumps have been updated to be the real material for the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, one of the most popular exams in Cisco today.

The newly updated 300-610 dumps file contains 145 exam questions and answers, you can study the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam material using the PDF files provided on the page and any of the study tools of the VCE exam engine, To help you pass the exam successfully. Use the 300-610 dumps address provided on this site: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-610.html, complete your Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, and guarantee your first attempt to pass successfully take an exam.

300-610 DCID Exam Tips:

Whether you’re a novice or a candidate, next I’ll share more information you need to know before taking the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam, because it’s important.

300-610 is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam code, and DCID is the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure exam shortened name, the following will show more exam details:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-610
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)
Certification: CCNP Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
300-610 DCID Exam Core: Network, Compute, Storage network, Automation
Schedule an exam: In-person, Online(Pearson VUE)

How to Qualify for CCNP Data Center:

Above I have provided the 300-610 dumps download address, you can use our recommendations to help you succeed in the Cisco 300-610 DCID exam. If you want to qualify for the CCNP data center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and The data center of your choice concentrates the exam.
You can understand everything with the pictures below.

The Cisco 300-610 DCID exam is one of the data center intensive exams that focus on emerging and industry-specific topics. So you can choose whatever industry-specific topics you want.

But to qualify for the CCNP Data Center, the core exam is required, and there is only one option, the 350-601 DCCOR exam. I can’t stop stressing the importance of the 350-601 DCCOR exam material as well.
Click here to get it. (Hint: Passing the core exam will qualify candidates to schedule and participate in CCIE labs during the validity period of their core exam)

Read some Cisco 300-610 DCID exam questions and answers online:

QUESTION 1:

What are two functions of a Network Services Orchestrator in an NFV environment? (Choose two.)

A. It operates at the resource-facing services layer and provides overall lifecycle management at the network service level.

B. It provides an API-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the resource-facing services layer.

C. It provides a standards-based southbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

D. It provides a standards-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.

E. It operates at the customer-facing services layer and provides the management interface for the virtual network devices.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/msx/3_4/solution_overview/Cisco_VMS_Sol_Overview.pdf

QUESTION 2:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch resources from the left onto the correct groups on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/creating-vdc.html

QUESTION 3:

What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?

A. vPC+
B. E-Trunk
C. SAN port-channel
D. LACP port-channel

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

After experiencing traffic disruptions from the failure of a single router, a customer asks an engineer to design a solution that will prevent this from occurring in the future.

While examining the customer\’s environment, the engineer discovers that the routers are manufactured by a variety of different vendors, and they have varying amounts of CPU and memory resources. Additionally, several of the customer\’s applications require the ability to fine-tune the load-balancing parameters between multiple gateway routers.

Which solution should be used to meet these requirements?

A. VRRP
B. FHRP
C. HSRP
D. GLBP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-
computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6:

A network engineer must design a data center network with four Cisco Nexus 7706 switches. The switches will be installed in primary and secondary data centers in vPC domains. The two data centers must be connected via Layer 2 links and provide the maximum throughput, and redundancy, and avoid port-blocking spanning-tree design.

Which deployment model meets these requirements?

A. dual-sided single vPC
B. single-sided dual vPC
C. dual-sided dual vPC
D. single-sided single vPC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

An engineer designs a Cisco UCS solution that must provide guaranteed and deterministic bandwidth to a specific server in the environment. The solution must apply to the network and storage traffic of C-Series and B-Series servers.

Which solution should be included to meet these requirements?

A. Pin the vNICs and the vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
B. Pin the IOM ports of the service profile to dedicated server ports.
C. Pin the server ports of the service profile to dedicated uplink ports.
D. Pin the vNICs and vHBAs of the service profile to dedicated server ports.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_uk/products/servers-unified-
computing/CiscoUCSSolutionOverviewUKIWeb.pdf

QUESTION 8:

What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a disaster recovery design?

A. reduction in application performance
B. distance limitations
C. specific backup requirements
D. potential data loss

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.evidian.com/products/high-availability-software-for-application-clustering/synchronous-replication-vs-asynchronous-replication/

QUESTION 9:

An engineer must choose the World Wide Port Name for the Cisco UCS Fibre Channel virtual host bus adapter. Which identifier must be used?

A. naa.600a09840691712159764d
B. fe80::314e:4566:8702:bf3d
C. iqn.2021-08.com.acme:3xxx
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:97:c3:ac

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round-robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

A network consultant must design a high availability interconnection of a clustered Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect toward two upstream Layer 2 switches. The Ethernet interconnection must use all redundant links and have no impact on the STP domain size.

Which connectivity solution must be used?

A. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

B. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in switch mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

C. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with a single uplink toward each upstream switch to eliminate any change to the STP domain size

D. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in end-host mode with dual uplinks distributed evenly to the upstream switches

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which technology enables Layer 2 extension between remote data center sites?

A. FCIP
B. GRE
C. DMVPN
D. OTV

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://netcraftsmen.com/spanning-layer-2-between-data-centers/

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point.

Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

……

Download Cisco 300-610 DCID Exam Questions and Answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1kCb6hGKEmygmRRyMQGAUNS9-tqfpFeYS/

View the 145-track Cisco 300-610 DCID exam materials: click here

New DP-203 Dumps | DP-203 Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure Exam Real Valid resources

admin April 12, 2022

DP-203 dumps have been updated. Contains 243 new exam questions, real material for you to pass the Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure exam.
The full name of the DP-203 exam is Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure. DP-203 dumps question targets from Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure core technologies including:
design and implement data storage; design and develop data processing; design and implement data security; monitor and optimize data storage and data processing.

leads4pass DP-203 Dumps Questions https://www.leads4pass.com/dp-203.html: Contains both PDF and VCE study modes, easy to study anytime, anywhere, helping you successfully pass the Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure exam on the first try.

Read the DP-203 Free Dumps Demo

QUESTION 1

What should you recommend to prevent users outside the Litware on-premises network from accessing the analytical data store?

A. a server-level virtual network rule
B. a database-level virtual network rule
C. a server-level firewall IP rule
D. a database-level firewall IP rule

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Ensure that the analytical datastore is accessible only to the company\’s on-premises network and Azure services.
Virtual network rules are one firewall security feature that controls whether the database server for your single databases and elastic pool in Azure SQL Database or for your databases in SQL Data Warehouse accepts communications that are sent from particular subnets in virtual networks.
Server-level, not database-level: Each virtual network rule applies to your whole Azure SQL Database server, not just to one particular database on the server. In other words, the virtual network rule applies at the server level, not at the database level.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-vnet-service-endpoint-rule-overview

QUESTION 2

You are designing a slowly changing dimension (SCD) for supplier data in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You plan to keep a record of changes to the available fields.
The supplier data contains the following columns.

Which three additional columns should you add to the data to create a Type 2 SCD? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. surrogate primary key
B. foreign key
C. effective start date
D. effective end date
E. last modified date
F. business key

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/slowly-changing-dimension-transformation

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT
A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet the following requirements:
Ingest:
1.

Access multiple data sources.
2.
Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow.
3.
Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages.
Store:
1.
Optimize storage for big data workloads.
2.
Provide encryption of data at rest.
3.
Operate with no size limits.
Prepare and Train:
1.
Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization.
2.
Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java.
3.
Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory.
Model and Serve:
1.
Implement native columnar storage.
2.
Support for the SQL language
3.
Provide support for structured streaming.
You need to build the data integration pipeline.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Ingest: Azure Data Factory
Azure Data Factory pipelines can execute SSIS packages.
In Azure, the following services and tools will meet the core requirements for pipeline orchestration, control flow, and data movement: Azure Data Factory, Oozie on HDInsight, and SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS).
Store: Data Lake Storage
Data Lake Storage Gen1 provides unlimited storage.
Note: Data at rest includes information that resides in persistent storage on physical media, in any digital format.
Microsoft Azure offers a variety of data storage solutions to meet different needs, including file, disk, blob, and table storage.
Microsoft also provides encryption to protect Azure SQL Database, Azure Cosmos DB, and Azure Data Lake.

Prepare and Train: Azure Databricks
Azure Databricks provides enterprise-grade Azure security, including Azure Active Directory integration.
With Azure Databricks, you can set up your Apache Spark environment in minutes, autoscale and collaborate on shared projects in an interactive workspace. Azure Databricks supports Python, Scala, R, Java, and SQL, as well as data science frameworks and libraries including TensorFlow, PyTorch, and scikit-learn.
Model and Serve: Azure Synapse Analytics
Azure Synapse Analytics/ SQL Data Warehouse stores data into relational tables with columnar storage.
Azure SQL Data Warehouse connector now offers efficient and scalable structured streaming write support for SQL
Data Warehouse. Access SQL Data Warehouse from Azure Databricks using the SQL Data Warehouse connector.
Note: Note: As of November 2019, Azure SQL Data Warehouse is now Azure Synapse Analytics.
Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/pipeline-orchestration-data-movement

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/what-is-azure-databricks

QUESTION 4

You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container. Which type of trigger should you use?

A. on-demand
B. tumbling window
C. schedule
D. event

Correct Answer: B

Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events. Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in the storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in the Azure Blob Storage account.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-event-trigger

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT

You need to design an analytical storage solution for transactional data. The solution must meet the sales
transaction dataset requirements.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Round-robin

Round-robin tables are useful for improving loading speed.
Scenario: Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month.
Box 2: Hash
Hash-distributed tables improve query performance on large fact tables.
Scenario:
1.
You plan to create a promotional table that will contain a promotion ID. The promotion ID will be associated with a specific
product. The product will be identified by a product ID. The table will be approximately 5 GB.
2.
Ensure that queries joining and filtering sales transaction records based on product ID are completed as quickly as possible.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-distribute

QUESTION 6

HOTSPOT
You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics solution that receives instant messaging data from an Azure event hub.
You need to ensure that the output from the Stream Analytics job counts the number of messages per time zone every 15 seconds.
How should you complete the Stream Analytics query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: timestamp by
Box 2: TUMBLINGWINDOW
Tumbling window functions are used to segment a data stream into distinct time segments and perform a function against them, such as the example below. The key differentiators of a Tumbling window are that they repeat, do not overlap, and an event cannot belong to more than one tumbling window.

QUESTION 7

You need to design a data retention solution for the Twitter teed data records. The solution must meet the customer sentiment analytics requirements. Which Azure Storage functionality should you include in the solution?

A. time-based retention
B. change feed
C. soft delete
D. Lifecycle management

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: Purge Twitter feed data records that are older than two years.
Data sets have unique lifecycles. Early in the lifecycle, people access some data often. But the need for access often drops drastically as the data ages. Some data remains idle in the cloud and is rarely accessed once stored. Some data sets expire days or months after creation, while other data sets are actively read and modified throughout their lifetimes.
Azure Storage lifecycle management offers a rule-based policy that you can use to transition blob data to the appropriate access tiers or to expire data at the end of the data lifecycle.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/lifecycle-management-overview

QUESTION 8

HOTSPOT
You are designing an application that will use an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen 2 account to store petabytes of license plate photos from toll booths. The account will use zone-redundant storage (ZRS).
You identify the following usage patterns:
1.
The data will be accessed several times a day during the first 30 days after the data is created.
2.
The data must meet an availability SU of 99.9%.
3.
After 90 days, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be available within 30 seconds.
4.
After 365 days, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be available within five minutes.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

You are designing a security model for an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that will support multiple companies.
You need to ensure that users from each company can view only the data of their respective companies.
Which two objects should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a security policy
B. a custom role-based access control (RBAC) role
C. a function

D. a column encryption key
E. asymmetric keys

Correct Answer: AB

A: Row-Level Security (RLS) enables you to use group membership or execution context to control access to rows in a database table. Implement RLS by using the CREATE SECURITY POLICYTransact-SQL statement.
B: Azure Synapse provides a comprehensive and fine-grained access control system, that integrates:
Azure roles for resource management and access to data in storage, Synapse roles for managing live access to code and execution, SQL roles for data plane access to data in SQL pools.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/row-level-security
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/security/synapse-workspace-access-control-overview

QUESTION 10

You are developing a solution that will stream to Azure Stream Analytics. The solution will have both streaming data and reference data. Which input type should you use for the reference data?

A. Azure Cosmos DB
B. Azure Blob storage
C. Azure IoT Hub
D. Azure Event Hubs

Correct Answer: B

Stream Analytics supports Azure Blob storage and Azure SQL Database as the storage layer for Reference Data.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-use-reference-data

QUESTION 11

You have an activity in an Azure Data Factory pipeline. The activity calls for a stored procedure in a data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics and runs daily.
You need to verify the duration of the activity when it ran last.
What should you use?

A. activity runs in Azure Monitor
B. Activity log in Azure Synapse Analytics

C. the sys.dm_pdw_wait_stats data management view in Azure Synapse Analytics
D. an Azure Resource Manager template

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/monitor-visually

QUESTION 12

You are designing an Azure Databricks cluster that runs user-defined local processes. You need to recommend a cluster configuration that meets the following requirements:
1.
Minimize query latency.
2.
Maximize the number of users that can run queries on the cluster at the same time.
3.
Reduce overall costs without compromising other requirements. Which cluster type should you recommend?

A. Standard with Auto Termination
B. High Concurrency with Autoscaling
C. High Concurrency with Auto Termination
D. Standard with Autoscaling

Correct Answer: B

A High Concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of High Concurrency clusters are that they provide fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies.
Databricks choose the appropriate number of workers required to run your job. This is referred to as autoscaling.
Autoscaling makes it easier to achieve high cluster utilization because you don\’t need to provision the cluster to match a workload.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The cluster configuration includes an auto terminate setting whose default value depends on cluster mode:
Standard and Single Node clusters terminate automatically after 120 minutes by default. High Concurrency clusters do not terminate automatically by default.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/databricks/clusters/configure

QUESTION 13

You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You run PDW_SHOWSPACEUSED(dbo,FactInternetSales\’); and get the results shown in the following table.

Which statement accurately describes the dbo, FactInternetSales table?

A. The table contains less than 1,000 rows.
B. All distributions contain data.
C. The table is skewed.
D. The table uses round-robin distribution.

Correct Answer: C

Data skew means the data is not distributed evenly across the distributions.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-distribute

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