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Leads4Pass 300-725 dumps: Pass Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam

admin October 17, 2024

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Enjoy two Cisco 300-725 SWSA online practice opportunities

First	Number of exam questions	Second	Related certifications
Practice the latest Cisco 300-725 exam materials below	15	Leads4Pass 300-725 Online	CCNP Security

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco WSA access policy elements from the left into the order in which they are processed on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco WSA with TrustSec in ISE?

A. The policy trace tool can be used to match access policies using specific SGT

B. Traffic of authenticated users who use 802.1x can be tagged with SGT to identify profiles in a Cisco WSA

C. ISE can block authentication for users who generate multiple sessions using suspect TCP ports

D. Users in a specific SGT can be denied access to certain social websites.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-3/ISE-WSAIntegrationDoc/b_ISE-WSAIntegration.html

Question 3:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 4:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

Question 5:

A network administrator noticed that all traffic that is redirected to the Cisco WSA from the Cisco ASA firewall cannot get to the Internet in a Transparent proxy environment using WCCP. Which troubleshooting action must be taken on the CLI to make sure that WCCP communication is not failing?

A. Disable WCCP to see if the WCCP service is causing the issue

B. Explicitly point the browser to the proxy

C. Ping the WCCP device

D. Check WCCP logs in debug mode

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What is the function of a PAC file on a Cisco WSA?

A. The file allows redirection of web traffic to a specific proxy server

B. The file is mandatory for a transparent proxy to redirect user traffic

C. The file provides instructions about which URL categories are permitted

D. The file is mandatory for an explicit proxy to forward user traffic

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/116052-config-webauth-proxy-00.html

Question 7:

Which method is used by AMP against zero-day and targeted file-based attacks?

A. analyzing the behavior of all files that are not yet known to the reputation service

B. periodically evaluating emerging threats as new information becomes available

C. implementing security group tags

D. obtaining the reputation of known files

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

Question 8:

Which two caching modes are available in the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. active cache

B. all cache

C. aggressive cache

D. safe cache

E. no-cache

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_0100.html#task_1214899

Question 9:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command displays this output?

A. grep

B. log config

C. rollover now

D. tail

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117938-configure-wsa-00.html

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the correct advanced web proxy setting descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

Question 12:

Which certificate format does a Cisco WSA need when an HTTPS proxy is configured?

A. DER

B. CER

C. PEM

D. CRL

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/security-documents/wsa-training-series-how-to-configure-the-https-proxy-on-the/ta-p/3148673

Question 13:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

Question 14:

A user browses to a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html

Question 15:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

…

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Latest Lead4Pass CCNA 200-301 dumps Update Sharing

admin June 28, 2023

leads4pass CCNA 200-301 dumps updated, containing 1297 latest topic exam questions and answers, reviewed, corrected, and actually verified by the leads4pass Cisco team to meet the CCNA certification exam requirements!

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Share part of the topic exam questions from leads4pass CCNA 200-301 dumps

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Last updated
leads4pass	15	CCNA, CCNP Enterprise …	CCNA 200-301 dumps

Topic Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 1

A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

A. Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B. Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C. Enable the WPA Policy.

D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

Correct Answer: D

Navigate to WLAN > Edit > Security > Layer2, and select None for Layer 2 Security:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/116879-configure-wlc-00.html

Topic Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 2

What is the reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A. The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C. The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D. The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Correct Answer: B

Here we see a large number of input errors and CRC errors.

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 2-1

Topic Question 3:

What is a function of a southbound API?

A. Use orchestration to provision a virtual server configuration from a web server

B. Automate configuration changes between a server and a switching fabric

C. Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric

D. Facilitate the information exchange between an SDN controller and an application

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 4:

What is represented by the word “R29” within this JSON schema?

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 4

A. array

B. key

C. object

D. value

Correct Answer: D

Topic Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 5

What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?

A. 192.168.30.1

B. 10.10.10.6

C. 10.10.10.5

D. 192.168.20.1

Correct Answer: B

Topic Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 6

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Topic Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 7

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 8:

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A. VLANID

B. SSID

C. RFID

D. WLANID

Correct Answer: B

The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. Multiple access points on a network or subnetwork may use the same SSIDs.

Topic Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 9

A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

B. The router will return the packet to its source.

C. The router will forward the packet via Serial 2.

D. The router will drop the packet.

Correct Answer: C

Topic Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 10

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning tree will need to be used.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Correct Answer: C

Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same network, the router will not accept it and show an error when the administrator assigns it.

Topic Question 11:

What are two characteristics of a small office/home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

A. It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B. It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C. It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D. It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E. A router port connects to a broadband connection.

Correct Answer: CE

Topic Question 12:

Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?

A. IS-IS

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. BGP

E. RIP

Correct Answer: BE

Topic Question 13:

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D. Accept: application/json

Correct Answer: D

Accept header is a way for a client to specify the media type of the response content it is expecting and Content-type is a way to specify the media type of request being sent from the client to the server.

Topic Question 14:

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

A. to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device

B. to set the severity of Syslog messages from each device

C. to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D. to control the number of Syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

Correct Answer: B

The purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network is to set the severity of Syslog messages from each device.

Topic Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Match the functions to the corresponding layers.

Select and Place:

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 15

Correct Answer:

CCNA 200-301 dumps topic exam questions 15-1

…

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300-425 dumps: Latest CCNP Enterprise 300-425 ENWLSD exam material

admin June 26, 2023

leads4pass 300-425 dumps have been released! Contains 120 of the latest exam questions and answers, which is the latest CCNP Enterprise 300-425 ENWLSD exam material.

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Share some of the latest leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions online for free

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certifications	Last updated
leads4pass	15	CCNP Enterprise	300-425 dumps

New Question 1:

A customer has multiple WLCs running N+1 redundancy with APs equally distributed. Only one WLC is a designated backup for all other WLCs so the customer must ensure that the most critical APs remain registered or get priority over other APs in case of a WLC failure. However, the customer notices on WLC failure that some critical APs remain unregistered What needs to be addressed in the design?

A. AP fallback is not enabled on the backup WLC.

B. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the backup WLC.

C. AP failover priority is not enabled globally on the failed WLC.

D. AP fallback is not enabled on the failed WLC.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

During a wireless design, all APs are mapped to designated controllers in case of failure. The controllers are located in the same data center but in different racks. An AP failed over to a controller that was not defined on its High Availability tab. The customer does not want the AP to move back to its defined Cisco WLCs until they manually intervene. What needs to be addressed in the design?

A. Set AP fallback to enabled.

B. Set AP fallback to disabled.

C. Change the HA SKU secondary unit option.

D. Change the default mobility domain.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable communication?

A. UDP port 16666

B. IP protocol 97

C. UDP port 97

D. TCP port 97

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 3

New Question 4:

An engineer is designing a new wireless network. The network needs to fulfill the following requirements:

1.

support multimedia applications

2.

support a high concentration of wireless clients

3.

support data over wireless

4.

support roaming Which approach should be used?

A. use of microcells with reduced power levels

B. use of macro cells with reduced power levels

C. coverage for cells at maximum power levels

D. use of macro cells with maximum power levels

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

An engineer is configuring a centralized set of controllers for separate facilities. Which two Cisco wireless architectures must be used to ensure flexible sizing of WLAN to VLAN mappings? (Choose two.)

A. interface group

B. mobility group

C. AP group

D. controller group

E. RF group

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 6:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs

B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

New Question 7:

A company has 10 access point licenses available on their backup Cisco WLC and their primary Cisco WLC is at full capacity, 5 access points are set to high failover priority and 7 access points are set to critical failover priority. During a failure, not all critical access points failed over to the backup Cisco WLC. Which configuration is the cause of this issue?

A. The high-priority access point is oversubscribed.

B. network ap-priority is set to enable.

C. The critical priority access point count is oversubscribed.

D. network ap-priority is set to disable.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2275.pdf

New Question 8:

An engineer is conducting a Layer 2 site survey. Which type of client must the engineer match to the survey?

A. best client available

B. phone client

C. normal client

D. worst client available

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-site-survey-guidelines-wlan-00.html

New Question 9:

An enterprise is using the wireless network as the main network connection for corporate users and guests. To wireless network availability. Two Standalone controllers are installed in the head office. APs are connected to the controllers using a round-robin approach to load balance the traffic. After a power cut, the wireless clients disconnect while roaming. An engineer tried to ping from the controller but failed. Which protocol needs to be allowed between the networks that the controllers are installed?

A. IP Protocol 67

B. IP Protocol 77

C. IP Protocol 87

D. IP Protocol 97

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 9

New Question 10:

An engineer must create data-link redundancy for the company\’s Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The engineer has decided to configure LAG-based redundancy instead of port-based redundancy. Which three features of LAG-based redundancy influenced this decision? (Choose three.)

A. Packets are always sent out on the same port they are received on.

B. All interface traffic passes as long as one port is up.

C. The same port has multiple untagged dynamics interfaces.

D. Interface connection to two separate nonstacked switches is available.

E. Full bandwidth of all links is available.

F. Ports are grouped into multiple LAGs.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 11

A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?

A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.

B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.

C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.

D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 11-1

New Question 12:

An engineer has designed an anchor redundancy for guest clients connecting to SSID with auto-anchor configured. After adding a second Anchor WLC under the SSID mobility anchor list, clients are load-balanced between existing and new anchors instead of having one anchor as active and the other one as standby. Which feature should be included in the design that will be configured on the WLC running 8.1 or above to ensure anchor redundancy?

A. Auto-Anchor Foreign Mapping

B. AP groups

C. Guest Anchor Priority

D. 802.11r

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

A customer has noticed that Client Band Select is enabled and no clients are utilizing the 5 GHz band. Which three parameters must be met to ensure that wireless clients use the 5 GHz bands? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that channel bonding is enabled on the WLAN.

B. Ensure that the co-channel interference has not exceeded-85 dBm.

C. Ensure that the UNII-2 extended channels are enabled on the 802.11a radios.

D. Ensure that the client is receiving RSSI above the minimum band select RSSI threshold.

E. Ensure that the client is dual-band capable.

F. Ensure that the WLAN has 802.11a enabled.

Correct Answer: DEF

Reference:

New leads4pass 300-425 dumps exam questions 13

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob41dg/emob41dg-wrapper/ch3_WLAN.pdf

New Question 14:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectra?

A. RRM

B. Cisco centralized key management

C. Band select

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C

…

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The latest updated 300-910 dumps serve all Cisco 300-910 DEVOPS exam candidates

admin June 20, 2023

The newly updated Cisco 300-910 dumps provide 114 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the 300-910 DevOps exam.

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1xk6QFkrnSPPSOtszdkkMORsYGuKsENYL/

Latest Cisco 300-910 Dumps exam questions online practice test

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Update time
leads4pass	15	CCDP, CCDA …	June 2023

New Question 1:

A developer is nearing the end of a software development cycle and is ready to deploy the software. The customer wants to continue using a secure software development lifecycle methodology and must plan for postproduction components. Which two areas should the developer address? (Choose two.)

A. performing code reviews

B. requirement gathering

C. change management process

D. new code scanning

E. rollback plans

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 2:

FILL BLANK

Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.

When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of type _________.

Correct Answer: pod, volume

New Question 3:

Which Kubernetes object is used to create a ClusterIP or NodePort?

A. service

B. pod

C. deployment

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 5:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What is the purpose of using a build tool in software development?

A. It complies with source code into binaries and executables.

B. It provides a way to edit source code using a graphical interface.

C. It is a manual process that is followed to build software.

D. It tracks bugs and incidents in a built application.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Which type of testing should be integrated into a CI/CD pipeline to ensure the correct behavior of all of the modules in the source code that were developed using TDD?

A. soak testing

B. unit testing

C. load testing

D. volume testing

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug ip routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug ip routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is the effective way to manage computing costs in a public cloud?

A. Monitor data transfers to minimize cost.

B. Use dedicated hardware for all instances.

C. Select the largest instance option available in order to pay for only one instance.

D. Make use of elastic services and scale on demand.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for inter container communication. Which command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. EXPOSE 8080

B. FIREWALL ADD-PORT 8080

C. PORT 8080

D. OPEN PORT 8080

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

How long do analysis systems such as Elasticsearch, Logstash, and Kibana Stack handle ingesting unstructured logs from different devices in various formats?

A. All devices that generate syslogs must use agents that process the local logs and transmit them in a specific format to the ELK Stack.

B. All logs are stored in their unstructured text format, and the ELK Stack performs data analysis by intelligently parsing the logs using machine learning algorithms.

C. All different message formats are parsed separately using custom filters, and the resulting structured data is stored for later analysis.

D. A single, comprehensive log format is defined on the ELK Stack. All incoming logs, regardless of format, are transformed to match the comprehensive format, and only applicable fields are populated.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

Which action should the system administrator take to start looking for the cause of this issue?

A. Check to make sure Nginx is running.

B. Check for response times in Nginx logs.

C. Check to make sure the web API response is coming back in JSON.

D. Check the size of the database that the application is using.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps. NetDevOps builds and manages networks as a system that enables network services to be consumed in a DevOps approach. Organizations practicing NetDevOps see changes in the _________ as routine and expected activities, with a well-

defined and practiced process for _________ , testing, and __________ network changes. By making them routine, network changes can be small and simple.

Correct Answer: network, designing, deploying

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/embrace-netdevops-part-1

…

Number of exam questions	Update time
15	Sep 2022

Question 1:

A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins

B. Genie CLI

C. Travis CI

D. Python YAML data libraries

Check answer ➠

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Check answer ➠

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. How should the Jenkins job be troubleshot based on the error provided?

A. Verify what the responding file created.

B. Update pip.

C. Install dependencies.

D. Place the code in a container and run the job again.

Check answer ➠

Question 4:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Check answer ➠

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the requests code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Check answer ➠

Question 6:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Check answer ➠

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Check answer ➠

Question 8:

The company has experienced serious growth and the hosted applications are getting more and more hits. Based on the increased workload, applications have started to show signs of reduced performance, which is affecting the user experience.

Which two server metrics should be tracked to ensure that the customer experience remains within acceptable limits? (Choose two.)

A. application feature sprawl

B. CPU peak usage

C. CPU average usage

D. microservices count

E. CPU frequency

Check answer ➠

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Check answer ➠

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Check answer ➠

Question 11:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

Check answer ➠

Question 12:

Which two characteristics of a build tool that is used in an automated build pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. It runs unit tests against code that is committed.

B. It builds your software in the production environment.

C. It builds your software when changes are committed.

D. It builds your software every 500 milliseconds.

E. It must have a plug-in for Puppet and Maven.

Check answer ➠

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

A. ReplicaSet

B. PriorityClass

C. Deployment

D. Pod

Check answer ➠

Question 14:

When static routes are added to a router in a network using a CI/CD pipeline, an Ansible playbook is used to make these changes. Which steps must be added to the pipeline to validate that the changes have the intended effect on the traffic flow?

A. Add a step to run the debug IP routing command before the change, and add a step after the change to issue the no debug IP routing command.

B. Add a step to capture the routing table before the change, and add a step after the change to capture it again. Calculate the difference between the two for review.

C. Add a step to ping a host on each of the static routes before the change, and a step after to repeat the same check. Calculate the difference between the two checks for review.

D. Add a step to run the same playbook again with the debug option enabled and use grep on the log output to ensure that the commands are not applied again.

Check answer ➠

Question 15:

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.

Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.

B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.

C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.

D. The metric beat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Check answer ➠

…

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

A

D

A

D

B

CE

B

BC

B

D

B

AC

A

B

D

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1xk6QFkrnSPPSOtszdkkMORsYGuKsENYL/

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[April 2023] Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps full upgrade sharing

admin April 13, 2023

leads4pass 200-901 dumps April update fully upgraded! Contains 442 latest exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team to be true and effective!

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You can also take the Cisco 200-901 online exam practice

From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
Free	15	Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)	200-901	200-901 dumps

Question 1:

A development team is using a version control system that has a centralized workflow. Which feature of the version control system ensures the integrity of the central repository?

A. central common code versioning backup

B. built-in conflict resolution mechanism

C. distributed nature of the version control system architecture

D. tracked code changes of the developers

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the Cisco Network Management Platforms that support the capabilities on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

What is the function of an Ethernet switch in a networking environment?

A. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the IP address

B. to switch a frame from one port to another port based on the MAC address

C. to provide IP addressing to connected hosts

D. to block unwanted traffic

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the actions from the left that the contents of this Dockerfile accomplish onto the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 5:

What is a capability of an agentless configuration management system?

A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.

B. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.

C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed hosts.

D. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?

A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.

B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.

C. Using functions, rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.

D. Modify the code to use loops.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

How do XML and JSON compare regarding functionality?

A. XML provides support for mapping data structures into host languages than JSON.

B. XML provides more human readability than JSON.

C. JSON provides more support for data types than XML.

D. JSON natively supports arrays and XML does not natively support arrays.

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which IP service synchronizes the time across devices?

A. DNS

B. NTP

C. SNMP

D. NAT

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

What is a feature of XML compared to other data formats?

A. It uses tags to define the structure.

B. It uses parenthesis for key-value pairs.

C. It uses indentation to define the structure.

D. It uses namespaces for list representation.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

An automation script fails to connect to an internal server exactly 1 out of 2 times it is executed. This behavior is seen in different clients. Which networking device must be at fault?

A. load balancer

B. laptop on which the script is running

C. switch

D. router

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is the function of the default gateway in a network?

A. to drop traffic that is destined for the default gateway

B. to drop traffic that is not destined for the default gateway

C. to forward traffic to the same subnet

D. to forward traffic to different subnets

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

A developer is part of a team that is working on an open-source project in which source code is hosted in a public GitHub repository.

While the application was built, security concerns were addressed by encrypting the credentials on the server. After a few months, the developer realized that a hacker managed to gain access to the account. The exhibit contains part of the source code for the login process.

Why was the attacker able to access the developer\’s account?

A. The encoded credentials were available in the source code.

B. The application was not encrypting the communication with the server.

C. The credentials were encrypted in the source code.

D. An SSL certificate was used instead of the TLS protocol to authenticate.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:

1.

MySQL database that stores data about customers

2.

HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache

3.

REST API is written in Python

What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)

A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users

B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller

C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model

D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created

E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?

A. Artifactory

B. Jira

C. ITSM

D. Git

Correct Answer: A

…

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Latest CCNP dumps to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam

admin February 15, 2023

Share the latest exam questions and answers of the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam online, and use ChatGPT to answer the most popular topics that all candidates care about. Using AI can help you better prepare for the next exam, AI will not help you with the exam, but it can provide the exam details you need.

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ChatGPT’s answer:

Q1: What is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is a test offered by Cisco that validates a candidate’s knowledge and skills in implementing and operating core enterprise network technologies. The exam is one of the requirements for obtaining the CCNP Enterprise certification, which is a professional-level certification designed for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who work with enterprise networking technologies.

The 350-401 ENCOR exam covers a range of topics, including network infrastructure, security, automation, virtualization, and network assurance. Specifically, the exam tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in the following areas:

Architecture
Virtualization
Infrastructure
Network assurance
Security
Automation

The exam consists of 90-110 questions and lasts for 120 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates must score a minimum of 825 out of 1000 points. Passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, along with passing one of the concentration exams, is required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q2: What are the 350-401 ENCOR certification examination methods?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam can be taken using two methods:

1. Online Proctored Exam: This is an online version of the exam that can be taken from any location with a reliable internet connection. The exam is proctored remotely, which means that candidates must follow strict exam rules and regulations to ensure a secure and fair testing environment. The online proctored exam can be scheduled through Pearson VUE, the official testing provider for Cisco certifications.

2. In-Person Exam: This is a traditional exam that can be taken at a Pearson VUE testing center. Candidates must travel to the testing center to take the exam, which is proctored on-site. The in-person exam is generally available in areas where the online proctored exam is not possible.

Both exam methods cover the same content and have the same number of questions, format, and time limit. However, the online proctored exam may have some additional technical requirements, such as a webcam, microphone, and a quiet testing environment. It’s important to note that both exam methods require candidates to register and pay for the exam in advance through the Pearson VUE website.

Q3: How to pass the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam?

Passing the 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam requires a combination of knowledge, skills, and test-taking strategies. Here are some tips to help you prepare and pass the exam:

1. Understand the exam objectives: Review the exam objectives and the topics that will be covered in the exam. You can find the exam objectives on the Cisco website or through the exam study materials.

2. Use official study materials: Cisco offers a range of study materials, including books, video courses, and practice exams. These materials are designed to help you prepare for the exam and provide an in-depth understanding of the exam topics.

3. Practice, practice, practice: Practice is key to passing the exam. Use the official practice exams and other resources (https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html) to test your knowledge and identify areas that require more study.

4. Build a lab: Build a lab environment using Cisco networking equipment or software simulations to gain practical experience in configuring and troubleshooting the technologies covered in the exam.

5. Join a study group: Join a study group or online forum to connect with other candidates, ask questions, and share study resources.

6. Manage your time: The exam is timed, so it’s important to manage your time during the exam. Pace yourself and don’t spend too much time on any one question.

7. Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and make sure you understand what is being asked. Look for keywords that can help you identify the correct answer.

8. Eliminate wrong answers: If you’re unsure of the answer, eliminate the wrong answers to narrow down the choices and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.

9. Review your answers: Once you’ve completed the exam, review your answers and make sure you’ve answered all the questions.

By following these tips and investing time and effort into your study, you can increase your chances of passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam and earning your CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q4: Is the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam worth it?

The 350-401 ENCOR (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies) certification exam is definitely worth it for network engineers and other IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. Here are some reasons why:

1. Industry recognition: The CCNP Enterprise certification, which is obtained by passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam, is recognized worldwide as a valuable credential for network engineers and other IT professionals.

2. Career advancement: Earning the CCNP Enterprise certification can help you advance your career by demonstrating your knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. It can also make you a more competitive candidate for job opportunities and promotions.

3. Skill development: Preparing for and passing the 350-401 ENCOR exam requires a deep understanding of enterprise network technologies, which can help you develop your skills and become a more effective network engineer or IT professional.

4. Networking opportunities: Joining a study group or online forum to prepare for the exam can help you connect with other IT professionals and build your professional network.

5. Cisco partnership benefits: If your organization is a Cisco partner, having CCNP Enterprise-certified professionals on staff can help you achieve partner status and access partner benefits.

Overall, the 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is definitely worth it for IT professionals who work with enterprise network technologies. It can help you advance your career, develop your skills, and gain industry recognition for your expertise.

Real Valid 350-401 ENCOR certification exam questions and answers for free from leads4pass:

Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Free	15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless	350-401

Question 1:

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?

A. GLBP

B. HSRP v2

C. VRRP

D. HSRP v1

Correct Answer: A

only GLBP can maximize utilization of links by being ACTIVE/ACTIVE while all others are ACTIVE/STANDBY/LISTENING

NOTE!!!! there is NO MHSRP only HSRP v1 and 2.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

A. multipoint

B. broadcast C. Ethernet

D. point-to-point

Correct Answer: B

The Broadcast network type is the default for an OSPF-enabled ethernet interface (while Point-to-Point is the default OSPF network type for a Serial interface with HDLC and PPP encapsulation). Reference: https:// www.oreilly.com/library/view/cisco-ios-cookbook/0596527225/ch08s15.html

Question 3:

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three)

A. memory

B. bandwidth

C. IP address

D. processor

E. storage

F. secure access

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

What are some of the key differences between HSRPv1 and HSRPv2? (Choose two.)

A. HSRPv1 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.102 while HSRPv2 uses 225.0.0.2.

B. HSRP uses a group range of 0-255, while HSRP uses a group range of 0-4095.

C. HSRPv1 uses seconds-based timers, while HSRPv2 uses milliseconds-based timers.

D. HSRPv1 provides support for IPv6, while HSRPv2 supports IPv4 only.

Correct Answer: BC

should be HSRPv1, HSRPv2

Question 5:

Which component does Cisco Threat Defense use to measure bandwidth, application performance, and utilization?

A. NetFlow

B. Cisco Umbrella

C. TrustSec

D. Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints

Correct Answer: A

NetFlow was initially created to measure network traffic characteristics such as bandwidth, application performance, and utilization.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/network_security/ctd/ctd2-0/design_guides/ctd_2-0_cvd_guide_jul15.pdf

Question 6:

What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100 mW?

A. 75dBm

B. 150dBm

C. 6dBm

D. 125dBm

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco StackWise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.)

A. Data Plane

B. Control Plane

C. Forwarding Plane

D. Management Plane

E. Bearer Plane

Correct Answer: BD

StackWise Virtual (SV) combines two switches into a single logical network entity from the network control plane and management perspectives. reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-9000/nb-06-cat-9k-stack-wp-cte-en.html

Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR

B. PITR

C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.

Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2992605 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html

Question 9:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference

C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar

D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference

E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

Correct Answer: AC

Question 11:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: C

“TCAM is most useful for building tables for searching on longest matches such as IP routing tables organized by IP prefixes. The TCAM table stores ACL, QoS, and other information generally associated with upper-layer processing. As a result of using TCAM, applying ACLs does not affect the performance of the switch.”

https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/cam-content-addressable-memory-vs-tcam-ternary-content/ta-p/3107938

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the snippet of code achieve?

A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.

B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct.

C. It opens a client connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.

D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.

Correct Answer: C

the client is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the client to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).

Question 14:

A customer has 20 stores located throughout the city. Each store has a single Cisco AP managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analytics for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

A. angle of arrival

B. presence

C. hyper location

D. trilateration

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Correct Answer: C

Cisco TrustSec uses tags to represent logical group privilege. This tag, called a Security Group Tag (SGT), is used in access policies. The SGT is understood and is used to enforce traffic by Cisco switches, routers, and firewalls. Cisco TrustSec is defined in three phases: classification, propagation, and enforcement. When users and devices connect to a network, the network assigns a specific security group. This process is called classification. Classification can be based on the results of the authentication or by associating the SGT with an IP, VLAN, or port profile (-> Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch\’ and answer \’security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch\’ are not correct as they say “assigned … on a switch” only. Answer \’security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network\’ is not correct either as it says “assigned to each router”).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/borderless-networks/trustsec/C07-730151-00_overview_of_trustSec_og.pdf

…

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[Dec 28, 2022] Latest Update Lead4Pass 300-920 dumps

admin December 28, 2022

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)	300-920	300-920 dumps

New Question 1:

Which two statements describe valid limitations for Webex Teams bot accounts in a group space? (Choose two.)

A. A bot account cannot send a message without an SSL certificate.

B. A bot account cannot hear a message unless the bot is @ mentioned.

C. A bot account cannot send a message without a valid access token.

D. A bot account cannot respond to another bot.

E. A bot account cannot send a message with an @mention.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/bots

New Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code snippets onto the exhibit to create a valid Webex Meetings API request allowing Jane (an admin) to reset John\’s PMR pin. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. A training coordinator must post links to Webex recordings on a company SharePoint site. This is usually a manual process, but a DevOps engineer wants to automate it using Webex XML APIs. After a successful LstRecording call wrapped in xml2js, the ‘console dir(result)’ output is shown in the exhibit. Using ‘dot notation’, drag and drop the code below onto the code snippet to output the streamURL for each recording.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/cloud-collaboration/api-for-scheduling-a-webex-meeting-on-behalf-of-other-user/td-p/3472319

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which code completes the return statement that initiates local screen sharing on the active meeting?

A. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: null

})

B. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: false, stream: remoteShare })

C. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: true receiveShare: true, stream: localShare })

D. activeMeeting.updateShare({ sendShare: false receiveShare: false, stream: null })

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/%40webex/plugin-meetings

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. A macro and a UI extension (also called In-Room Control) are being developed. What is the reason for the error displayed in the console?

A. Widgets of type “Slider” are not supported on the device.

B. The UI extension was not exported to the device.

C. The name of the widget in the macro and the UI extension must match.

D. Promises are not supported for this device.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce99/webex-board-administrator-guide-ce99.pdf

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:

1.

retrieves the details of an individual user

2.

checks what licenses they have already

3.

updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code to create a valid Guest Issuer JWT token to use with the Webex Teams Browser SDK. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/guest-issuer

Question 9:

Which two statements about incoming WebEx call notifications on iOS and Android applications are true? (Choose two.)

A. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a notification message.

B. When running in the background on Android, Firebase Cloud Messaging must use a data message.

C. Webhooks are required with the iOS SDK only when the application is in the background.

D. When running in the background on iOS, Application Push Notifications must be configured to be silent.

E. Webhooks are required in the foreground and background for iOS and Android applications.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-android-sdk-example-push-notification-server/blob/master/README.md https://developer.webex.com/docs/sdks/ios

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP requests that set up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is already a connection to a device for this jsxapi.code snippet. Which snippet completes the code so that the connected device makes a call to the user [email protected]?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://github.com/CiscoDevNet/labs-xapi/pull/12/files/40c9fc38e115f4dec4709836501a165008caeaba

Question 13:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code segments to construct a script that carries out these functions:

1.

adds a new room

2.

adds two users, Bob, and Alice, to the room

3.

when both users have been added, send a welcome message

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://github.com/webex/webex-js-sdk/tree/master/packages/node_modules/webex (see usage)

Question 15:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms. Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

…

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New update CyberOps Associate 200-201 dumps with PDF and VCE

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
13	Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)	leads4pass	Nov 10, 2022	200-201 dumps exam questions

NEW QUESTION 1:

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.

B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2:

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed
B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion
C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory
D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3:

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

A. known-plaintext
B. replay
C. dictionary
D. man-in-the-middle

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

A. threat intelligence
B. risk scores
C. vendor suggestions
D. vulnerability exposure

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Tampered images are used as evidence.
C. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
D. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation
B. DDoS attack
C. phishing
D. man-in-the-middle
E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7:

CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

A. info
B. tags
C. MIME
D. name

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8:

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.
B. The total incident escalations per week.
C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.
D. The total incident escalations per month.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9:

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

A. Run “ps -d” to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.
B. Run “ps -u” to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.
C. Run “ps -ef” to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.
D. Run “ps -m” to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/62182/please-explain-this-output-of-ps-ef-command

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A. management and reporting
B. traffic filtering
C. adaptive AVC
D. metrics collection and exporting
E. application recognition

Correct Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate new 200-201 dumps exam questions 11

Which type of attack is being executed?

A. SQL injection
B. cross-site scripting
C. cross-site request forgery
D. command injection

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_injection.asp

NEW QUESTION 12:

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack

Correct Answer: C

An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an intruder gains access.

NEW QUESTION 13:

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

A. Biba
B. Object-capability
C. Take-Grant
D. Zero Trust

Correct Answer: D

Zero Trust security is an IT security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network, regardless of whether they are sitting within or outside of the network perimeter.

…

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[Update Nov 01, 2022] CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass with PDF and VCE

admin November 1, 2022

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Read the CCNP Security 300-725 exam questions and answers shared online today:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)	leads4pass	Nov 01, 2022	300-725 dumps questions 1-15

New Question 16:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html

New Question 17:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

New Question 18:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html

New Question 19:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html

New Question 20:

Which key is needed to pair a Cisco WSA and Cisco ScanCenter for CTA?

A. public SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

B. public SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

C. private SSH key that Cisco ScanCenter generates

D. private SSH key that the Cisco WSA generates

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010111.html

New Question 21:

Which behavior is seen while the policy trace tool is used to troubleshoot a Cisco WSA?

A. External DLP policies are evaluated by the tool

B. A real client request is processed and a EUN page is displayed

C. SOCKS policies are evaluated by the tool

D. The web proxy does not record the policy trace test requests in the access log when the tool is in use

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html#con_1415277

New Question 22:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)

New Question 23:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity-Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

New Question 24:

Which configuration option is suitable for explicit mode deployment?

A. PAC

B. WCCP

C. ITD

D. PBR

Correct Answer: A

In explicit-mode deployment, users will point the proxy setting to WSA. This can be done by pointing directly to WSA or via a PAC (Proxy Auto-Config) file.

New Question 25:

Which two sources provide data to Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting to create dashboards? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco WSA devices

B. Cisco ISE

C. Cisco ASAv

D. Cisco Security MARS

E. Cisco Cloud Web Security gateways

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_6/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_6_1.pdf

New Question 26:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

New Question 27:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)

New Question 28:

Which two caches must be cleared on a Cisco WSA to resolve an issue in processing requests? (Choose two.)

A. authentication cache

B. application cache

C. logging cache

D. DNS cache

E. HTTP cache

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

New Question 29:

Which statement about configuring an identification profile for machine authentication is true?

A. Cloud Web Security Connector mode with an active directory enabled supports machine authentication

B. Identification profile machine ID is supported locally, but the Cisco WSA does not support machine ID authentication

C. Cloud Web Security with Kerberos enabled supports machine authentication

D. If an Active Directory realm is used, identification can be performed for an authenticated user or IP address but not for a machine ID

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01001.html

New Question 30:

Which two benefits does AMP provide compared to the other scanning engines on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. protection against malware

B. protection against zero-day attacks

C. protection against spam

D. protection against viruses

E. protection against targeted file-based attacks

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/advanced-malware-protection/solution-overview-c22-734228.html

…

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DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions latest update from Lead4Pass

admin October 10, 2022

leads4pass continues to share the latest 15 DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam questions and answers to help you study online, welcome to download the 300-915 dumps provided by leads4pass:https://www.leads4pass.com/300-915.html Contains 59 practical and valid exam questions and answers, and provides PDF files and VCE simulation tools to help you quickly learn and pass the DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam.

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)	leads4pass	Oct 10, 2022	300-915 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q15)

Continue your DevNet Professional 300-915 DEVIOT exam knowledge:

New Question 16:

Which two states are applications expected to be seen in when they are managed on Cisco IOx? (Choose two.)

A. DEACTIVATED

B. ACTIVATED

C. ALLOWED

D. STOPPED

E. VALIDATED

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 17:

When an RS232 device is connected to a Cisco IR829 router, the data collected is not being parsed correctly by the edge application.

Which two steps should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. SSH access on the Cisco IR829 router must be enabled for IOx Guest OS.

B. Communication mode must be set to half duplex over a serial connection.

C. Serial cable length should not exceed 1.5 meters.

D. Ensure that communication parameters like baud rate and parity are set correctly.

E. Set the cable connections based on the PIN layout from the sensor vendor.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 18:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about MQTT messaging are true? (Choose two.)

A. Result in code 5 means the connection is accepted; result code 0 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

B. Redundant ClientIDs are supported by MQTT brokers.

C. MQTT does not support a “keep alive” functionality because it runs on top of TCP.

D. Result code 0 means the connection is accepted; result code 5 means the connection is “refused, not authorized”.

E. Brokers can send the Last Will and Testament messages on behalf of the client.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 19:

How do the Cisco router (IR) and switch (IE) portfolios support edge data services?

A. Edge data services can be run and managed as containers using Cisco IOx.

B. Edge data services can run only in virtual machines on a separate compute layer.

C. Edge data services are aliases for IR/IE configuration services.

D. Edge data services run as separate instances only on virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 20:

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an error on an application descriptor for a Docker app in Cisco IOx (package.YAML), the app type appears to be missing. Which app type must be added to the snippet to resolve the issue?

A. paas

B. docker-vm

C. docker

D. docker-app

Correct Answer: C

New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about data flow are true? (Choose two.)

A. Another AMQP broker should be implemented on the customer cloud.

B. Instead of AMQP, MQTT should be used for compatibility issues in a cloud-to-cloud connection.

C. A VPN tunnel is not necessary because the MQTT payload is encrypted by default.

D. The gateway must stay constantly connected to the Kinetic cloud to avoid blank data sets, even when using caching functions.

E. The Python application could use the paho-mqtt library.

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 22:

Which two statements define the mechanism for console access of the Guest Operating System from the Cisco IR829 router? (Choose two.)

A. The Guest OS can be accessed by default on Telnet port 2070 from the Cisco IR829 console.

B. The Guest OS console is available directly by the AUX port 3362 from the Cisco IR829 router.

C. The Guest OS can be accessed directly using the console port on the Cisco IR829 router.

D. The Guest OS can be accessed by initiating SSH from the Cisco IR829 console.

E. The Guest OS console is available only when a static IP is configured on the host.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 23:

The environment for an Industrial IoT project in a large open pit mine is being scoped. The location has a large amount of dust and the device will be exposed to less than 1 meter of water temporarily.

When the edge device is being chosen, which Ingress protection rating must be used?

A. IP37

B. IP61

C. IP67

D. IP76

Correct Answer: C

New Question 24:

Which two statements about how to provision and manage data originators in a cloud environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The provisioning of digital identities is the responsibility of the data originators.

B. Cloud providers offer services for automated device provisioning, which allows the lifecycle of the cloud representation for data originators to be managed.

C. Cloud providers offer application programming interfaces, which allow a programmatic provisioning of data originators.

D. There is no need to provision and manage access for data originators in the cloud.

E. access to public clouds must be configured and managed manually.

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code completes the Dockerfile?

A. RUN chmod 777 /usr/bin/sample.py

B. RUN chown root:root /usr/bin/sample.py

C. WORKDIR /usr/bin

D. USER root

Correct Answer: A

New Question 26:

As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an application that will share multiple clients using a REST API.

Based on the software development process, what are two valid technical activities that can be suggested to secure the REST API that is developed during the development of the software? (Choose two.)

A. Respond to request failures in detail to allow users for easier troubleshoot.

B. Implement HTTP whitelisting to only methods that are allowed.

C. Implement and review audit logs for security-related events.

D. Reject HTTP methods that are invalid with an error code 404.

E. Implement physical firewalling and access control to the resources.

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 27:

Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers? (Choose two.)

A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.

B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low-latency communication.

C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.

D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.

E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 28:

After an application is deployed, potential issues arise around connectivity. As part of the troubleshooting process, the IP address must be determined to ensure end-to-end communication.

Which method provides the required details using the Cisco IOx CLI?

A. ioxclient application status

B. ioxclient application metrics

C. ioxclient application getconfig

D. ioxclient application info

Correct Answer: D

New Question 29:

Where are edge data services typically instantiated?

A. at the edge of the network

B. in the cloud

C. in the data center

D. in a private cloud

Correct Answer: A

New Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. A new application has just been developed as a Docker container. What is the missing step for packaging the container ready for deployment in IOx?

A. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.

B. Build the package.YAML files.

C. Build the package. cert file to sign the app.

D. Log in to the device manager and load the application.

Correct Answer: B

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