EC-COUNCIL

CEH v12 Exam 2023

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Read the latest 312-50v12 dumps exam questions online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Certified Ethical Hacker Exam312-50v12312-50v11 dumps
QUESTION 1:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption.

The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.

After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages.

What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization.

In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.

What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Network-based scanner

A network-based vulnerability scanner, in simplistic terms, is the process of identifying loopholes in a computer’s network or IT assets, which hackers and threat actors can exploit.

By implementing this process, one can successfully identify their organization’s current risk(s).

This is not where the buck stops; one can also verify the effectiveness of your system’s security measures while improving internal and external defenses.

Through this review, an organization is well equipped to take an extensive inventory of all systems, including operating systems, installed software, security patches, hardware, firewalls, anti-virus software, and much more.

Agent-based scanner

Agent-based scanners make use of software scanners on each and every device; the results of the scans are reported back to the central server. Such scanners are well-equipped to find and report on a range of vulnerabilities.

NOTE:

This option is not suitable for us, since for it to work, you need to install a special agent on each computer before you start collecting data from them.

QUESTION 4:

There have been concerns in your network that the wireless network component is not sufficiently secure.

You perform a vulnerability scan of the wireless network and find that it is using an old encryption protocol that was designed to mimic wired encryption, what encryption protocol is being used?

A. WEP

B. RADIUS

C. WPA

D. WPA3

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) may be a security protocol, laid out in the IEEE wireless local area network (Wi-Fi) standard, 802.11b, that’s designed to supply a wireless local area network (WLAN) with A level of security and privacy like what’s usually expected of a wired LAN.

A wired local area network (LAN) is usually protected by physical security mechanisms (controlled access to a building, for example) that are effective for a controlled physical environment but could also be ineffective for WLANs because radio waves aren’t necessarily bound by the walls containing the network.

WEP seeks to determine similar protection thereto offered by the wired network’s physical security measures by encrypting data transmitted over the WLAN. encoding protects the vulnerable wireless link between clients and access points; once this measure has been taken, other typical LAN security mechanisms like password protection, end-to-end encryption, virtual private networks (VPNs), and authentication are often put in situ to make sure privacy.

A research group from the University of California at Berkeley recently published a report citing “major security flaws” in WEP that left WLANs using the protocol susceptible to attacks (called wireless equivalent privacy attacks). within the course of the group’s examination of the technology, they were ready to intercept and modify transmissions and gain access to restricted networks.

The Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance (WECA) claims that WEP ? which is included in many networking products. was never intended to be the only security mechanism for a WLAN, and that, in conjunction with traditional security practices, it’s very effective.

QUESTION 5:

Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?

A. Rootkit

B. Trojan

C. Worm

D. Adware

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

How does a denial-of-service attack work?

A. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service

B. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication

C. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network

D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST, HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server.

You can detect all these methods (GET, POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using the NMAP script engine.

What Nmap script will help you with this task?

A. HTTP-methods

B. HTTP enum

C. HTTP-headers

D. HTTP-git

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?

A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.

B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of cardholder data over any public network.

C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.

D. Limit access to cardholder data to as few individuals as possible.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/pci_security/maintaining_payment_security Build and Maintain a Secure Network

312-50v12 dumps questions 9

In a MAC flooding attack, a switch is fed with many Ethernet frames, each containing different source MAC addresses, by the attacker. Switches have limited memory for mapping various MAC addresses to physical ports.

What happens when the CAM table becomes full?

A. Switch then acts as a hub by broadcasting packets to all machines on the network

B. The CAM overflow table will cause the switch to crash causing Denial of Service

C. The switch replaces the outgoing frame switch factory default MAC address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF: FF

D. Every packet is dropped and the switch sends out SNMP alerts to the IDS port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key.

Suppose a malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.

Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct object reference vulnerability?

A. “GET /restricted/goldtransfer?to=Rob&from=1 or 1=1′ HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com”

B. “GET /restricted/\r\n\%00account%00Ned%00access HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”

C. “GET /restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host westbank.com”

D. “GET /restricted/ HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

This question shows a classic example of an IDOR vulnerability. Rob substitutes Ned’s name in the “name” parameter and if the developer has not fixed this vulnerability, then Rob will gain access to Ned’s account.

Below you will find more detailed information about IDOR vulnerability.

Insecure direct object references (IDOR) are a cybersecurity issue that occurs when a web application developer uses an identifier for direct access to an internal implementation object but provides no additional access control and/or authorization checks.

For example, an IDOR vulnerability would happen if the URL of a transaction could be changed through client-side user input to show unauthorized data of another transaction. Most web applications use simple IDs to reference objects.

For example, a user in a database will usually be referred to via the user ID. The same user ID is the primary key to the database column containing user information and is generated automatically. The database key generation algorithm is very simple: it usually uses the next available integer.

The same database ID generation mechanisms are used for all other types of database records.

The approach described above is legitimate but not recommended because it could enable the attacker to enumerate all users. If it’s necessary to maintain this approach, the developer must at least make absolutely sure that more than just a reference is needed to access resources.

For example, let’s say that the web application displays transaction details using the following URL:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74656

A malicious hacker could try to substitute the id parameter value 74656 with other similar values, for example:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74657

The 74657 transactions could be valid transactions belonging to another user. The malicious hacker should not be authorized to see it. However, if the developer made an error, the attacker would see this transaction, and hence we would have an insecure direct object reference vulnerability.

QUESTION 11:

Session splicing is an IDS evasion technique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple, small-sized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack signatures.

Which tool can be used to perform session splicing attacks?

A. TCP splice

B. Burp

C. Hydra

D. Whisker

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Many IDS reassemble communication streams; hence, if a packet is not received within a reasonable period, many IDS stop reassembling and handling that stream. If the application under attack keeps a session active for a longer time than that spent by the IDS on reassembling it, the IDS will stop.

As a result, any session after the IDS stops reassembling the sessions will be susceptible to malicious data theft by attackers. The IDS will not log any attack attempt after a successful splicing attack. Attackers can use tools such as Nessus for session splicing attacks.?

Did you know that the EC-Council exam shows how well you know their official book? So, there is no “Whisker” in it. In the chapter “Evading IDS” -> “Session Splicing”, the recommended tool for performing a session-splicing attack is Nessus.

Where Wisker came from is not entirely clear, but I will assume the author of the question found it while copying Wikipedia.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_detection_system_evasion_techniques One basic technique is to split the attack payload into multiple small packets so that the IDS must reassemble the packet stream to detect the attack.

A simple way of splitting packets is by fragmenting them, but an adversary can also simply craft packets with small payloads. The ‘whisker’ evasion tool calls crafting packets with small payloads ‘session splicing’.

By itself, small packets will not evade any IDS that reassembles packet streams. However, small packets can be further modified in order to complicate reassembly and detection. One evasion technique is to pause between sending parts of the attack, hoping that the IDS will time out before the target computer does. A second evasion technique is to send the packets out of order, confusing simple packet re-assemblers but not the target computer.

NOTE: Yes, I found scraps of information about the tool that existed in 2012, but I can not give you unverified information. According to the official tutorials, the correct answer is Nessus, but if you know anything about Wisker, please write in the QA section. Maybe this question will be updated soon, but I’m not sure about that.

QUESTION 12:

Which Intrusion Detection System is the best applicable for large environments where critical assets on the network need extra scrutiny and is ideal for observing sensitive network segments?

A. Honeypots

B. Firewalls

C. Network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS)

D. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13:

Given below are the different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle.

1) Remediation
2) Identify assets and create a baseline
3) Verification
4) Monitor
5) Vulnerability scan
6) Risk assessment

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management.

A. 2–>5–>6–>1–>3–>4

B. 2–>1–>5–>6–>4–>3

C. 2–>4–>5–>3–>6–> 1

D. 1–>2–>3–>4–>5–>6

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14:

Miley, a professional hacker, decided to attack a target organization’s network. To perform the attack, she used a tool to send fake ARP messages over the target network to link her MAC address with the target system’s IP address.

By performing this, Miley received messages directed to the victim’s MAC address and further used the tool to intercept, steal, modify, and block sensitive communication to the target system.

What is the tool employed by Miley to perform the above attack?

A. Gobbler

B. KDerpNSpoof

C. BetterCAP

D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15:

ViruXine.W32 virus hides its presence by changing the underlying executable code.

This Virus code mutates while keeping the original algorithm intact, the code changes itself each time it runs, but the function of the code (its semantics) will not change at all.

312-50v12 dumps questions 15

Here is a section of the Virus code:

312-50v12 dumps questions 15-1

What is this technique called?

A. Polymorphic Virus

B. Metamorphic Virus

C. Dravidic Virus

D. Stealth Virus

Correct Answer: A


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Part of the 312-50V11 dumps exam material online practice test:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

“……..is an attack-type for a rogue Wi-Fi access point that appears to be a legitimate one offered on the premises, but actually has been set up to eavesdrop on wireless communications. It is the wireless version of the phishing scam. An attacker fools wireless users into connecting a laptop or mobile phone to a tainted hot spot by posing as a legitimate provider. This type of attack may be used to steal the passwords of unsuspecting users by either snooping the communication link or by phishing, which involves setting up a fraudulent website and luring people there.”
Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice.

A. Evil Twin Attack
B. Sinkhole Attack
C. Collision Attack
D. Signal Jamming Attack

QUESTION 2:

How can rainbow tables be defeated?

A. Use of non-dictionary words
B. All uppercase character passwords
C. Password salting
D. Lockout accounts under brute force password cracking attempts

QUESTION 3:

You want to analyze packets on your wireless network. Which program would you use?

A. Wireshark with Airpcap
B. Airsnort with Airpcap
C. Wireshark with Winpcap
D. Ethereal with Winpcap

QUESTION 4:

Nicolas just found a vulnerability on a public-facing system that is considered a zero-day vulnerability. He sent an email to the owner of the public system describing the problem and how the owner can protect themselves from that vulnerability. He also sent an email to Microsoft informing them of the problem that their systems are exposed to. What type of hacker is Nicolas?

A. Red hat
B. white hat
C. Black hat
D. Gray hat

QUESTION 5:

Ron, a security professional, was pen testing web applications and SaaS platforms used by his company. While testing, he found a vulnerability that allows hackers to gain unauthorized access to API objects and perform actions such as view, updating, and delete sensitive data of the company. What is the API vulnerability revealed in the above scenario?

A. Code injections
B. Improper use of CORS
C. No ABAC validation
D. Business logic flaws

QUESTION 6:

A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server. Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B. Require all employees to change their anti-virus program with a new one
C. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

QUESTION 7:

Bobby, an attacker, targeted a user and decided to hijack and intercept all their wireless communications.
He installed a fake communication tower between two authentic endpoints to mislead the victim. Bobby used this virtual tower to interrupt the data transmission between the user and the real tower, attempting to hijack an active session, upon receiving the users request. Bobby manipulated the traffic with the virtual
tower and redirected the victim to a malicious website.
What is the attack performed by Bobby in the above scenario?

A. Wardriving
B. KRACK attack
C. jamming signal attack
D. aLTEr attack

QUESTION 8:

Firewalk has just completed the second phase (the scanning phase) and a technician receives the output shown below.
What conclusions can be drawn based on these scan results?

TCP port 21 no response
TCP port 22 no response
TCP port 23 time-to-live exceeded

A. The lack of response from ports 21 and 22 indicates that those services are not running on the destination server

B. The scan on port 23 was able to make a connection to the destination host prompting the firewall to respond with a TTL error

C. The scan on port 23 passed through the filtering device. This indicates that port 23 was not blocked at the firewall

D. The firewall itself is blocking ports 21 through 23 and a service is listening on port 23 of the target host

QUESTION 9:

Why is a penetration test considered to be more thorough than a vulnerability scan?

A. Vulnerability scans only do host discovery and port scanning by default.

B. A penetration test actively exploits vulnerabilities in the targeted infrastructure, while a vulnerability scan does not typically involve active exploitation.

C. It is not ? a penetration test is often performed by an automated tool, while a vulnerability scan requires active engagement.

D. The tools used by penetration testers tend to have much more comprehensive vulnerability databases.

QUESTION 10:

What is the file that determines the basic configuration (specifically activities, services, broadcast receivers, etc.) in an Android application?

A. AndroidManifest.xml
B. APK.info
C. resources.asrc
D. classes.dex

QUESTION 11:

You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You
harvested two employees\’ emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to
send it to the employees via email.
Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Weaponization
D. Exploitation

QUESTION 12:

Louis, a professional hacker, had used specialized tools or search engines to encrypt all his browsing activity and navigate anonymously to obtain sensitive/hidden information about official government or federal databases. After gathering the Information, he successfully performed an attack on the target government organization without being traced. Which of the following techniques is described in the above scenario?

A. Dark web footprinting
B. VoIP footpnnting
C. VPN footprinting
D. website footprinting

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL?

A. [inurl:]
B. [related:]
C. [info:]
D. [site:]

Verify answer:

Number:Answers:Illustrate:
Q1A
Q2C
Q3A
Q4BA white hat (or a white hat hacker) is an ethical computer hacker, or a computer security expert, who focuses on
penetration testing and in other testing methodologies that ensures the safety of an organization\’s information systems.
Ethical hacking may be a term meant to imply a broader category than simply penetration testing. Contrasted with black
hat, a malicious hacker, the name comes from Western films, where heroic and antagonistic cowboys might traditionally
wear a white and a black hat respectively. While a white hat hacker hacks under good intentions with permission, and a
black hat hacker, most frequently unauthorized, has malicious intent, there\’s a 3rd kind referred to as a gray hat hacker
who hacks with good intentions but sometimes without permission.White hat hackers can also add teams called
“sneakers and/or hacker clubs”,red teams, or tiger teams.While penetration testing concentrates on attacking software
and computer systems from the beginning ?scanning ports, examining known defects in protocols and applications
running on the system and patch installations, as an example ?ethical hacking may include other things. A full-blown
ethical hack might include emailing staff to invite password details, searching through executive\’s dustbins and
typically breaking and entering, without the knowledge and consent of the targets. Only the owners, CEOs and Board
Members (stake holders) who asked for such a censoring of this magnitude are aware. to undertake to duplicate a
number of the destructive techniques a true attack might employ, ethical hackers may arrange for cloned test systems,
or organize a hack late in the dark while systems are less critical. In most up-to-date cases these hacks perpetuate for
the long-term con (days, if not weeks, of long-term human infiltration into an organization). Some examples include
leaving USB/flash key drives with hidden auto-start software during a public area as if someone lost the tiny drive and
an unsuspecting employee found it and took it.Some other methods of completing these include:?DoS attacks?Social
engineering tactics?Reverse engineering? Network security?Disk and memory forensics?Vulnerability
research?Security scanners such as:?W3af?Nessus?Burp suite? Frameworks such as:?Metasploit?Training
PlatformsThese methods identify and exploit known security vulnerabilities and plan to evade security to realize entry
into secured areas. they\’re ready to do that by hiding software and system back-doors\\’ which will be used as a link to information or access that a non-ethical hacker, also referred to asblack-hat\’ or `grey-hat\’, might want to succeed in Exam E
Q5B
Q6A
Q7D
Q8C
Q9B
Q10AThe AndroidManifest.xml file contains information about your package, including components of the appliance like activities, services, broadcast receivers, content providers, etc. It performs other tasks also:?it\’s responsible to guard the appliance to access any protected parts by providing the permissions.
It also declares the android API that the appliance goes to use.
It lists the instrumentation classes.

The instrumentation classes provide profiling and other information. This information is removed just before the appliance is published etc. This is the specified XML file for all the android applications and is located inside the basis directory.
Q11DAt this stage exploiting a vulnerability to execute code on the victim\’s direct channel for remote manipulation of the victim is the objective. Here ancient hardening measures add resiliency, however, custom defense capabilities are necessary to prevent zero-day exploits at this stage. once the weapon is delivered to the victim host, exploitation triggers intruders\’ code. Most often, exploitation targets Associate in the Nursing application or software vulnerability, however it may additionally additional merely exploit the users themselves or leverage Associate in Nursing software feature that auto-
executes code. In recent years this has become a district of experience within the hacking community that is commonly incontestible at events like Blackhat, Defcon, and also the like.
Q12AVoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) is a web convention that permits the transmission of voice brings over the web. It does as such by changing over the ordinary telephone signals into advanced signs. Virtual Private Networks(VPN) give a protected association with an association \’ organization. Along these lines, VoIP traffic can disregard an SSL-based VPN, successfully scrambling VoIP administrations. When leading surveillance, in the underlying phases of VoIP
footprinting, the accompanying freely accessible data can be normal: All open ports and administrations of the gadgets associated with the VoIP organization The public VoIP worker’s IP address The working arrangement of the worker
running VoIP The organization framework
Q13B

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  • Total Questions: 354 Q&A
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QUESTION 1
An “idle” system is also referred to as what?
A. Zombie
B. PC not being used
C. Bot
D. PC not connected to the Internet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following defines the details of services to be provided for the client\\’s organization and the list of services
required for performing the test in the organization?
A. Draft
B. Report
C. Requirement list
D. Quotation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A web application developer is writing code for validating the user input. His aim is to verify the user input against a list
of predefined negative inputs to ensure that the received input is not one among the negative conditions. Identify the
input filtering mechanism being implemented by the developer?
A. Black listing
B. White listing
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
NTP protocol is used to synchronize the system clocks of computers with a remote time server or time source over a
network. Which one of the following ports is used by NTP as its transport layer?
A. TCP port 152
B. UDP port 177
C. UDP port 123
D. TCP port 113
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
AB Cloud services provide virtual platform services for the users in addition to storage. The company offers users with
APIs, core connectivity and delivery, abstraction and hardware as part of the service. What is the name of the service
AB Cloud services offer?
A. Web Application Services
B. Platform as a service (PaaS)
C. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. Software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: C

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Table Of Content:

  1. EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam tips
  2. EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam details
  3. EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Exam process and Exam Path
  4. EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 practice test questions
  6. EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Coupon Code

Latest update EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam tips

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EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam details

  • Vendor: EC-COUNCIL
  • Exam Code: 312-50V11
  • Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v11 Exam
  • Certification: CEH v11
  • Total Questions: 373 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 Exam process and Exam Path

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques,
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  • You must be fully clothed throughout your entire exam (no hats or hoods)
  • You must stay within your webcam view
  • You cannot get up and walk around
  • No one can enter your testing environment
  • You cannot leave your testing environment
  • A beverage in any container is allowed, but no food or smoking
  • You cannot move your webcam once your testing session has started
  • Mumbling or speaking out loud will lead to a warning

BEFORE EXAM DAY

Perform a system test
Make sure to do the required system test and exam simulation before exam day.*

Find your testing space
Find a quiet, distraction-free area in your home or office to take your exam.

Get your ID ready
Your ID must be valid and up to date. Does your program have specific ID policies?

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools is used to analyze the files produced by several packet-capture programs such as tcpdump,
WinDump, Wireshark, and EtherPeek?
A. tcptrace
B. Nessus
C. OpenVAS
D. tcptraceroute
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A technician is resolving an issue where a computer is unable to connect to the Internet using a wireless access point.
The computer is able to transfer files locally to other machines, but cannot successfully reach the Internet. When the
technician examines the IP address and default gateway they are both on the 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following
has occurred?
A. The computer is not using a private IP address.
B. The gateway is not routing to a public IP address.
C. The gateway and the computer are not on the same network.
D. The computer is using an invalid IP address.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?
A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.
B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of card holder data over any public network.
C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.
D. Limit access to card holder data to as few individuals as possible.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Although FTP traffic is not encrypted by default, which layer 3 protocol would allow for end-to-end encryption of the
connection?
A. SFTP
B. Ipsec
C. SSL
D. FTPS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which method of password cracking takes the most time and effort?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Rainbow tables
D. Brute force
Correct Answer: D

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Table Of Content:

  1. EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam tips
  2. EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam details
  3. EC-COUNCIL 212-89 Exam process and Exam Path
  4. EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of EC-COUNCIL 212-89 practice test questions
  6. EC-COUNCIL 212-89 Coupon Code

Latest update EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam tips

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EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam details

  • Vendor: EC-COUNCIL
  • Exam Code: 212-89
  • Exam Name: EC-Council Certified Incident Handler
  • Certification: ECIH
  • Total Questions: 163 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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The EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH) program is designed to provide the fundamental skills to handle and respond to computer security incidents in an information system while preparing you to pass the ECIH exam.

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Exam session rules

We take steps to ensure that every testing experience is a good one, but we still stop your exam if the rules aren’t followed.

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  • You must be fully clothed throughout your entire exam (no hats or hoods)
  • You must stay within your webcam view
  • You cannot get up and walk around
  • No one can enter your testing environment
  • You cannot leave your testing environment
  • A beverage in any container is allowed, but no food or smoking
  • You cannot move your webcam once your testing session has started
  • Mumbling or speaking out loud will lead to a warning

BEFORE EXAM DAY

Perform a system test
Make sure to do the required system test and exam simulation before exam day.*

Find your testing space
Find a quiet, distraction-free area in your home or office to take your exam.

Get your ID ready
Your ID must be valid and up to date. Does your program have specific ID policies?

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Free sharing of EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Adam calculated the total cost of a control to protect 10,000 $ worth of data as 20,000 $. What do you advise Adam to
do?
A. Apply the control
B. Not to apply the control
C. Use qualitative risk assessment
D. Use semi-qualitative risk assessment instead
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Spyware tool used to record malicious user\\’s computer activities and keyboard stokes is called:
A. adware
B. Keylogger
C. Rootkit
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to respond to insider threats:
A. Placing malicious users in quarantine network, so that attack cannot be spread
B. Preventing malicious users from accessing unclassified information
C. Disabling the computer systems from network connection
D. Blocking malicious user accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the best staffing model for an incident response team if current employees\\’ expertise is very low?
A. Fully outsourced
B. Partially outsourced
C. Fully insourced
D. All the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
ADAM, an employee from a multinational company, uses his company\\’s accounts to send e-mails to a third party with
their spoofed mail address. How can you categorize this type of account?
A. Inappropriate usage incident
B. Unauthorized access incident
C. Network intrusion incident
D. Denial of Service incident
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below: A. XPath Injection Attack

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B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

What are the scanning techniques that are used to bypass firewall rules and logging mechanisms and disguise
themselves as usual network traffic?
A. Connect Scanning Techniques
B. SYN Scanning Techniques
C. Stealth Scanning Techniques
D. Port Scanning Techniques

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which of the following has an offset field that specifies the length of the header and data?
A. IP Header
B. UDP Header
C. ICMP Header
D. TCP Header

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or
ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of
the following operators is used to define meta-variables?
A. “$”
B. “#”
C. “*”
D. “?”

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages
onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of
another
host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead.
ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other attacks.

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What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

TCP/IP provides a broad range of communication protocols for the various applications on the network. The TCP/IP
model has four layers with major protocols included within each layer. Which one of the following protocols is used to
collect information from all the network devices?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Network File system (NFS)
C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Harold is a web designer who has completed a website for ghttech.net. As part of the maintenance agreement he
signed with the client, Harold is performing research online and seeing how much exposure the site has received so far.
Harold
navigates to google.com and types in the following search.
link:www.ghttech.net
What will this search produce?
A. All sites that link to ghttech.net
B. Sites that contain the code: link:www.ghttech.net
C. All sites that ghttech.net links to
D. All search engines that link to .net domains

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Metasploit framework is an open-source platform for vulnerability research, development, and penetration testing. Which
one of the following Metasploit options is used to exploit multiple systems at once?
A. NinjaDontKill
B. NinjaHost
C. RandomNops
D. EnablePython

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

One needs to run the “Scan Server Configuration” tool to allow a remote connection to Nessus from the remote Nessus
clients. This tool allows the port and bound interface of the Nessus daemon to be configured. By default, the Nessus
daemon listens to connections on which one of the following?
A. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1241
B. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1240
C. Localhost (127.0.0.1) and port 1246
D. Localhost (127.0.0.0) and port 1243

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following methods is used to perform server discovery?
A. Banner Grabbing
B. Who is Lookup
C. SQL Injection
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

In Linux, what is the smallest possible shellcode?
A. 800 bytes
B. 8 bytes
C. 80 bytes
D. 24 bytes

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A firewall protects networked computers from intentional hostile intrusion that could compromise confidentiality or result
in data corruption or denial of service. It examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain
criteria; If it does, it is routed between the networks, otherwise, it is stopped.

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Why is an appliance-based firewall is more secure than those implemented on top of the commercial operating system
(Software based)?
A. Appliance based firewalls cannot be upgraded
B. Firewalls implemented on a hardware firewall are highly scalable
C. Hardware appliances do not suffer from security vulnerabilities associated with the underlying operating system
D. Operating system firewalls are highly configured

Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short
distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Correct Answer: Bluetooth
Bluetooth is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile
devices,
creating personal area networks with high levels of security. Created by telecoms vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was
originally conceived as a wireless alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices, overcoming
problems of
synchronization. Today Bluetooth is managed by the Bluetooth Special Interest Group.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a passive attack?
A. Unauthorized access
B. Traffic analysis
C. Replay attack
D. Session hijacking

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides interhost communication?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Session layer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Jason works as a System Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Sam,
an employee of the company, accidentally changes some of the applications and system settings. He complains to
Jason that his system is not working properly. To troubleshoot the problem, Jason diagnoses the internals of his
computer and observes that some changes have been made in Sam\’s computer registry. To rectify the issue, Jason
has to restore the registry. Which of the following utilities can Jason use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Reg.exe
B. EventCombMT
C. Regedit.exe
D. Resplendent registrar

Correct Answer: ACD

A resplendent registrar is a tool that offers a complete and safe solution to administrators and power users for
maintaining the registry. It can be used for maintaining the registry of desktops and remote computers on the network. It
offers a solution for backing up and restoring registries, fast background search and replace, adding descriptions to the
registry keys, etc. This program is very attractive and easy to use, as it comes in an explorer-style interface. It can be
used for Windows 2003/XP/2K/NT/ME/9x. Reg.exe is a command-line utility that is used to edit the Windows registry. It
has the ability to import, export, back up, and restore keys, as well as to compare, modify, and delete keys. It can
perform almost all tasks that can be done using the Windows-based Regedit.exe tool. Registry Editor (REGEDIT) is a
registry editing utility that can be used to look at the information in the registry. REGEDIT.EXE enables users to search for
strings, values, keys, and subkeys and is useful to find a specific value or string. Users can also use REGEDIT.EXE to
add, delete, or modify registry entries. Answer option B is incorrect. EventCombMT is a multithreaded tool that is used
to search the event logs of several different computers for specific events, all from one central location. It is a little-known Microsoft tool to run searches for event IDs or text strings against Windows event logs for systems, applications,
and security, as well as File Replication Service (FRS), domain name system (DNS), and Active Directory (AD) logs
where applicable. The MT stands for multi-threaded. The program is part of the Account Lockout and Management
The tools program package for Windows 2000, 2003, and XP.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications
equipment and systems?
A. ICANN
B. IEEE
C. NIST
D. CCITT

Correct Answer: D

CCITT is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and
systems. It is now known as the ITU-T (for Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the International
Telecommunications Union). The ITU-T mission is to ensure the efficient and timely production of standards covering all
fields of telecommunications on a worldwide basis, as well as defining tariff and accounting principles for international
telecommunication services. Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS
infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management. Answer option B is incorrect. The
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical professionals. It promotes the
development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops communications and network
standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has many local chapters, and
societies in specialized areas. Answer option C is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST),
known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory
which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute\’s official mission is as
follows: To promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and
technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. NIST had an operating budget for the fiscal
year 2007 (October 1, 2006-September 30, 2007) of about $843.3 million. NIST\’s 2009 budget was $992 million, but it
also received $610 million as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. NIST employs about 2,900
scientists, engineers, technicians, and support and administrative personnel. About 1,800 NIST associates (guest
researchers and engineers from American companies and foreign nations) complement the staff. In addition, NIST
partners with 1,400 manufacturing specialists and staff at nearly 350 affiliated centers around the country.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.
B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.
C. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.
D. It provides improved authentication and security.
E. It uses 128-bit addresses.

Correct Answer: BEAD

IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addresses. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the problems
that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility. With the fast
increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP addresses are depleting rapidly, and the
need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem, as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a
lot
more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6
address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654: BB32: 543C: FACE.
Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used in IPv4
addresses.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following attacks comes under the category of an active attack?
A. Replay attack
B. Wireless footprinting
C. Passive Eavesdropping
D. Traffic analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

You work as the network administrator for uCertify Inc. The company has planned to add the support for IPv6
addressing. The initial phase deployment of IPv6 requires support from some IPv6-only devices. These devices need to
access servers that support only IPv4. Which of the following tools would be suitable to use?
A. Multipoint tunnels
B. NAT-PT
C. Point-to-point tunnels
D. Native IPv6

Correct Answer: B

NAT-PT (Network address translation-Protocol Translation) is useful when an IPv4-only host needs to communicate
with an IPv4-only host. NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation) is an implementation of RFC 2766
as specified by the IETF. NAT-PT was designed so that it can be run on low-end, commodity hardware. NAT-PT runs in
user space, capturing and translating packets between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks (and vice-versa). NAT-PT uses the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Neighbor Discovery (ND) on the IPv4 and IPv6 network systems, respectively.

examineeverything 312-38 q8

NAT-Protocol Translation can be used to translate both the source and destination IP addresses.
Answer option D is incorrect. Native IPv6 is of use when the IPv6 deployment is pervasive, with heavy traffic loads.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-point tunnels work well when IPv6 is needed only in a subset of sites. These point-to-point tunnels act as a virtual point-to-point serial link. These are useful when the traffic is of very high volume. Answer
option A is incorrect. The multipoint tunnels are used for IPv6 deployment even when IPv6 is needed in a subset of sites
and is suitable when the traffic is infrequent and of less predictable volume.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following TCP/IP state transitions represents no connection state at all?
A. Closed
B. Closing
C. Close-wait
D. Fin-wait-1

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote Internet security
standards?
A. ANSI
B. WASC
C. IEEE
D. ITU

Correct Answer: B

Web Application Security Consortium (WASC) is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote
Internet security standards. WASC is vendor-neutral, although members may belong to corporations involved in the
research, development, design, and distribution of Web security-related products.
Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the
development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of
the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
and the
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
Answer option D is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to
standardize and regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation
of the
radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow international phone
calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. ITU\’s telecommunications division (ITU-T) produces more
than
200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of telecommunications, information technology,
consumer electronics, broadcasting, and multimedia communications. ITU was streamlined into the following three
sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radiocommunication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization)
Answer option C is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical
professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops
communications and network standards, among other activities. The organization publishes a number of journals, has
many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework to stimulate a rapid recovery, and the ability
to react effectively to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?
A. None
B. log analysis
C. Business Continuity Management
D. patch management
E. response systems

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45
connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
A. Serial
B. Loopback
C. Crossover
D. Parallel

Correct Answer: C

In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and
Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options D and A are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors
and
Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables
are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option B is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.

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